Solution: Show ui=vi if u0=v0 in Difference Equations

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves sequences {uk} and {vk} defined by a recurrence relation, where the goal is to demonstrate that if the initial terms u0 and v0 are equal, then all subsequent terms ui and vi are also equal. The subject area pertains to difference equations and eigenvalues.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the relationship between the sequences and explore the implications of the initial condition u0 = v0. There are attempts to express the sequences in terms of eigenvalues and eigenvectors, with some questioning the definitions and roles of these terms.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing hints and exploring different interpretations of the problem. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of a new variable wk = uk - vk to facilitate the analysis.

Contextual Notes

There is some uncertainty regarding the number of eigenvalues associated with the matrix A, and participants are debating the relevance of these eigenvalues to the problem at hand.

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Homework Statement


Suppose that {uk} and {vk} are sequences satisfying uk = Auk-1 k = 1, 2, ... and vk = Avk-1 k = 1, 2,... Show that if u0 = v0 then ui = vi for all values of i.


Homework Equations



uk --> is u subscript k
u0 --> is u subscript 0
uk-1 --> is u subscript k-1
ui --> is u subscript i


The Attempt at a Solution



Well so far I have...
uk = A^k(u0)
= A^k(a1u1 + a2u2 +...+anun)
= a1(A^k)u1 + a2(A^k)u2 +...+ an(A^k)un
= a1(lambda1^k)u1 + a2(lambda2^k) +...+ an(lambdan^k)un

But since u0 = v0 A^k(u0) = A^k(v0)

But after there I get uncertain cause I think my next steps would be:
= A^k(a1v1 + a2v2 +...+ anvn)
= a1(A^k)v1 + a2(A^k)v2 +...+ an(A^k)vn
= a1(lambda1^k)v1 + a2(lambda2^k)v2 +...+ an(lambdan^k)vn)

Then conclude uk = vk?
Is this correct?

Thanks! :)
 
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Hi simmonj7! :smile:

(try using the X2 tag just above the Reply box :wink:)
simmonj7 said:
Well so far I have...
uk = A^k(u0)
= A^k(a1u1 + a2u2 +...+anun)
= a1(A^k)u1 + a2(A^k)u2 +...+ an(A^k)un
= a1(lambda1^k)u1 + a2(lambda2^k) +...+ an(lambdan^k)un

(what are the as and the lambdas? :confused: anyway …)

Hint: put wk = uk - vk, for all k. :wink:
 
When solving a difference equation all the way out you have to find the eigen values, then find the corresponding eigen vectors and then have to find a relationship between those eigen vectors and the vector x0. Thus x0 = a1u1 + a2u2 +...+ anun is the relationship between all the eigen vectors.

Then you just plug in that relationship for x0 into the equation xk = (A^k)x0. From there you distribute the A^k through and then (because (A)x = (lambda)x then (A^k)x = (lambda^k)x where lambda is an eigen vector of A) you substitute that back into the equation and that is what all the a's and lambda's are.
 
But there's only one eigenvalue here (and it's A). :confused:
 
Where are you getting that there is only one eigen value? There is no way to determine how many eigen values there are of A...
 
The eigenvalues of A don't matter …

all that matters is the roots of the characteristic equation of this recurrence relation which in this case is the single root, A.

Try using the wk I mentioned earlier. :smile:
 

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