MHB Solve a trigonometric equation

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The equation to solve is $$\cos^2 \left(\frac{\pi}{4}(\sin x+\sqrt{2}\cos^2 x)\right)-\tan^2 \left(x+\frac{\pi}{4}\tan^2 x\right)=1$$. To approach the solution, moving the tangent function to the other side and applying the Pythagorean Identity is suggested, leading to the conclusion that both terms must equal 1 and 0 respectively. The first term equals 1 when $$\cos^2(\frac{\pi}{4}(\sin x+\sqrt{2}\cos^2 x)) = 1$$, indicating that $$x = 2n\pi - \frac{\pi}{4}$$ is a solution. The second term, $$\tan^2(x+\frac{\pi}{4}\tan^2 x) = 0$$, provides additional solutions including $$x = n\pi$$. The final solutions derived are $$x = 2n\pi - \frac{\pi}{4}$$ and $$x = n\pi$$.
anemone
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Solve the equation

$$\cos^2 \left(\frac{\pi}{4}(\sin x+\sqrt{2}\cos^2 x)\right)-\tan^2 \left(x+\frac{\pi}{4}\tan^2 x\right)=1$$
 
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anemone said:
Solve the equation

$$\cos^2 \left(\frac{\pi}{4}(\sin x+\sqrt{2}\cos^2 x)\right)-\tan^2 \left(x+\frac{\pi}{4}\tan^2 x\right)=1$$

I would probably start by moving the tangent function to the other side and applying the Pythagorean Identity to convert everything to cosines...
 
yeah there by it will become product of 2 cosine's =1 that means both equal to 1
 
Last edited:
Prove It said:
I would probably start by moving the tangent function to the other side and applying the Pythagorean Identity to convert everything to cosines...

People posting problems in this sub-forum are presumed to already have worked out the solution in full and are posting the problem as a challenge to others to solve rather than asking for help. (Wink)
 
anemone said:
Solve the equation

$$\cos^2 \left(\frac{\pi}{4}(\sin x+\sqrt{2}\cos^2 x)\right)-\tan^2 \left(x+\frac{\pi}{4}\tan^2 x\right)=1$$

as cos^2 t < = 1 and tan ^2 a >= 0 so the 1st term is 1 and 2nd term is zero.

So cos^2(π/4(sinx+√2 cos2x)) = 1 and tan^2(x+π/4tan^2x) = 0

So (x+π/4tan^2 x) = n π , x = 0 is a solution and other solutions are
= n π – π/4(this I found by guessing tan ^2x =1 and not rigorously)

cos^2(π/4(sin x+√2cos^2x)) = 1 when x = 2 n π – π/4
hence this is the solution
 
Here is a little puzzle from the book 100 Geometric Games by Pierre Berloquin. The side of a small square is one meter long and the side of a larger square one and a half meters long. One vertex of the large square is at the center of the small square. The side of the large square cuts two sides of the small square into one- third parts and two-thirds parts. What is the area where the squares overlap?

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