Solve Convergent Series with Mathematica: Pi Squared/8

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the evaluation of the infinite series $$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(2n+1)^2}$$ and its relation to known results in series summation, particularly its equivalence to $$\frac{\pi^2}{8}$$. Participants seek to understand the derivation of this result, with a focus on mathematical reasoning and proofs.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant requests clarification on how to derive the value of the series $$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(2n+1)^2}$$, which Mathematica evaluates as $$\frac{\pi^2}{8}$$.
  • Another participant suggests a method to derive the series value by relating it to the known result $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$$, proposing to add and subtract terms from the series to arrive at the desired result.
  • A third participant acknowledges the explanation provided.
  • A fourth participant references a book, "Journey Through Genius" by Dunham, indicating that a detailed proof is available there.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the relationship between the series and its known results, but the discussion does not resolve the specifics of the derivation process, leaving some uncertainty regarding the steps involved.

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not delve into the assumptions or definitions underlying the series or the methods proposed for its evaluation, which may affect the clarity of the derivation.

Hertz
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Hi, Mathematica is telling me the value of this series, but I can't figure out how to do it on paper. Can someone please explain? $$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(2n+1)^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{8}$$
 
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Hertz said:
Hi, Mathematica is telling me the value of this series, but I can't figure out how to do it on paper. Can someone please explain? $$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(2n+1)^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{8}$$

http://ptrow.com/articles/Infinite_Series_Sept_07.htm
Above describes the derivation of
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$$

Your equation is readily derived from this. Add all the $$\frac{1}{(2n)^2}$$ terms to your series and then subtract that series as [itex](\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2})/4[/itex]. You end up with $$\frac{\pi^2}{6}-\frac{1}{4}\frac{\pi^2}{6}=\frac{\pi^2}{8}$$
 
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Thanks!
 
Last edited:
I know the proof is written in detail in Dunham's "Journey Through Genius".
 

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