MHB Solving 2nd-Order IVP as System of Equations

karush
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
3,240
Reaction score
5
$\tiny{2.1.5.1.c}$ source
Change the second-order IVP into a system of equations
$\dfrac{d^2x}{dt^2}+\dfrac{dx}{dt}'+4x=\sin t \quad x(0)=4\quad x'(0)= -3$
ok I presume we can rewrite this as
$u''+u'+4u=\sin t$
Let $x_1=u$ and $x_2=u'$ then $x_1'=x_2$
substituting
$x_2'+x_2+4x=\sin t$
$\begin{array}{lllll}
&let &x_1=u &and &x_2=u'\\
&then &x_1'=x_2 &and &x_2'=u''
\end{array}$
so
$\begin{array}{llll}
x_1'=x_2\\
x_2'=-x_2-4x_1+\sin t
\end{array}$

so far
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Since $x_2= x_1$ $x_2'= -5x_2+ sin(t)$. The associated homogeneous equation is $x_2'= \frac{dx}{dt}=-5x_2$ which we can write $\frac{dx_2}{x_2}= -5dt$. Integrating both sides, $ln(x_2)= -5t+ C$. Taking the exponential of both sides, $x_2= e^{-5t+ C}= e^Ce^{-5t}= C'e^{-5t}$.

Since the derivative of sin(x) is cos(x) and the derivative of cos(x) is -sin(x) we look for a solution to the entire equation of the form $x_2= A sin(x)+ B cos(x)$. Then $x_2'= A cos(x)- B sin(x)$ and the equation becomes
$A cos(x)- B sin(x)= -5(A sin(x)+ B cos(x))+ sin(x)$ so that $(A- B)cos(x)+ (5A- B)sin(x)= sin(x)$.

We must have A- B= 0 and 5A- B= 1.
 
Country Boy said:
Since $x_2= x_1$ $x_2'= -5x_2+ sin(t)$. The associated homogeneous equation is $x_2'= \frac{dx}{dt}=-5x_2$ which we can write $\frac{dx_2}{x_2}= -5dt$. Integrating both sides, $ln(x_2)= -5t+ C$. Taking the exponential of both sides, $x_2= e^{-5t+ C}= e^Ce^{-5t}= C'e^{-5t}$.

Since the derivative of sin(x) is cos(x) and the derivative of cos(x) is -sin(x) we look for a solution to the entire equation of the form $x_2= A sin(x)+ B cos(x)$. Then $x_2'= A cos(x)- B sin(x)$ and the equation becomes
$A cos(x)- B sin(x)= -5(A sin(x)+ B cos(x))+ sin(x)$ so that $(A- B)cos(x)+ (5A- B)sin(x)= sin(x)$.

We must have A- B= 0 and 5A- B= 1.
mahalo that helped a lot...
 
Thread 'How to define a vector field?'
Hello! In one book I saw that function ##V## of 3 variables ##V_x, V_y, V_z## (vector field in 3D) can be decomposed in a Taylor series without higher-order terms (partial derivative of second power and higher) at point ##(0,0,0)## such way: I think so: higher-order terms can be neglected because partial derivative of second power and higher are equal to 0. Is this true? And how to define vector field correctly for this case? (In the book I found nothing and my attempt was wrong...

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • · Replies 34 ·
2
Replies
34
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K