Solving (a+ib)^2 = (c+id)^2: Understanding the Problem and Finding Solutions

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Homework Statement


How do I show that if (a+ib)2 = (c+id)2 then (a+ib) = [tex]\pm[/tex](c+id)

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


(a+ib)(a+ib) = a2 + 2aib -b2
(c+id)(c+id) = c2 + 2cid - d2
Stuck after this.
 
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squenshl said:

The Attempt at a Solution


(a+ib)(a+ib) = a2 + 2aib -b2
(c+id)(c+id) = c2 + 2cid - d2
Stuck after this.

Well, if a,b,c and d are all real numbers, then you must have a2-b2=c2-d2 and ab=2cd (for two complex number to be equal, their real parts must be equal and their imaginary parts must be equal)
 


Don't you mean ab = cd. So b = cd/a then (cd/a)2 - b2 = c2 - d2
a4 - c2d2 = a2c2 - a2 - d2
(a2 - c2)(a2 + d2) = 0
Am I on the right track
 


squenshl said:
Don't you mean ab = cd. So b = cd/a then (cd/a)2 - b2 = c2 - d2
a4 - c2d2 = a2c2 - a2 - d2
(a2 - c2)(a2 + d2) = 0
Am I on the right track

Yes. Now realize that for (a2 - c2)(a2 + d2) to be zero, either a2= c2 or c2=-d2...but "a", "c" and "d" are real numbers, so a=___?
 


If [itex](a+bi)^2=(c+di)^2[/itex], then clearly [itex](a+bi)^2 - (c+di)^2 = 0[/itex]. Factor this expression and use the zero product property to arrive at the desired result.
 


jgens said:
If [itex](a+bi)^2=(c+di)^2[/itex], then clearly [itex](a+bi)^2 - (c+di)^2 = 0[/itex]. Factor this expression and use the zero product property to arrive at the desired result.

That works fine, provided you've already proven that

[tex]z_1z_2=0\implies z_1=0\;\;\;\text{or}\;\;\;z_2=0[/itex]<br /> <br /> for complex numbers.[/tex]
 


a2 = -d2 & a2 = c2
a = [tex]\pm[/tex]id & a = [tex]\pm[/tex]c
 
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Right, but you can immediately throw away the solution [itex]a=\pm id[/itex] since both [itex]a[/itex]and [itex]d[/itex] are supposed to be real numbers...What does the other solution give you for [itex]b[/itex] when you plug it back into [itex]b=\frac{cd}{a}[/itex]?
 


b = [tex]\pm[/tex]d
What do we plug that into?
Since we know what a & b is hence (a+ib) = ([tex]\pm[/tex]c + i[tex]\pm[/tex]d) then factorise to get (a+ib) = [tex]\pm[/tex](c+id)
 
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Yeah, basically. If [itex]a=\pm c[/itex] and [itex]b=\pm d[/itex], then [itex](a+ ib)=\pm(c + i d)[/itex] and you're done.:smile:
 


Awesome.
Cheers.
What if I wanted to do it in polar form.
 


In polar form, you would basically want to show that [itex](r_1e^{i\phi_1})^2=(r_2e^{i\phi_2})^2[/itex] implies [itex]r_1e^{i\phi_1}=\pm r_2e^{i\phi_2}[/itex] and for that, you would use the fact that [itex]e^{i\phi_2}=e^{i(\phi_2+2\pi n}[/itex] to finds the two unique roots of the equation.
 


What if I wanted to go (a+ib)2 = r12(cos(2[tex]\vartheta[/tex]) + isin(2[tex]\vartheta[/tex]))
 


Then you would just expand (a+ib)^2 again, and compare the real and imaginary parts on both sides of the equation...
 


No thanks. That's nasty.
I'll leave the answer in rectangular form.
 
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