- 5,850
- 553
I have a rather basic question about solving eigenvalue problems. Once you actually find all the eigenvalues for a given operator in some basis and you go about finding the respective eigenvectors through the components and run into a situation like this:
[tex]\mid \omega = 1 >[/tex] [tex]\Rightarrow \begin{bmatrix}<br /> 1 & 0 & 1\\ <br /> 0 & 1 & 0 \\ <br /> 1 & 0 & 1<br /> \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}<br /> v_{1}\\ <br /> v_{2}\\ <br /> v_{3}<br /> \end{bmatrix} = 0[/tex]
and you put it into the form
[tex]v_{1} + v_{3} = 0[/tex]
[tex]v_{2} = 0[/tex]
[tex]v_{1} + v_{3} = 0[/tex]
isn't there an ambiguity as to whether you choose to set [tex]v_{1} = -v_{3}[/tex] as opposed to [tex]v_{3} = -v_{1}[/tex] for the eigenvector(normalized or not) corresponding to the eigenvalue? Does it not make a difference regarding sign for the respective components of the eigenvector? Sorry if this is a petty question I just wasn't sure.
[tex]\mid \omega = 1 >[/tex] [tex]\Rightarrow \begin{bmatrix}<br /> 1 & 0 & 1\\ <br /> 0 & 1 & 0 \\ <br /> 1 & 0 & 1<br /> \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}<br /> v_{1}\\ <br /> v_{2}\\ <br /> v_{3}<br /> \end{bmatrix} = 0[/tex]
and you put it into the form
[tex]v_{1} + v_{3} = 0[/tex]
[tex]v_{2} = 0[/tex]
[tex]v_{1} + v_{3} = 0[/tex]
isn't there an ambiguity as to whether you choose to set [tex]v_{1} = -v_{3}[/tex] as opposed to [tex]v_{3} = -v_{1}[/tex] for the eigenvector(normalized or not) corresponding to the eigenvalue? Does it not make a difference regarding sign for the respective components of the eigenvector? Sorry if this is a petty question I just wasn't sure.