Solving for Cn to get wave function

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The discussion focuses on solving for the constant Cn in the context of wave functions for an infinite square well. The integral presented for Cn is critiqued for potential errors, particularly regarding variable consistency and the need for explicit forms of the wave functions ψ1 and ψ2. Participants emphasize the importance of presenting the original problem statement for clarity and suggest that the approach may be flawed. They note that terms resembling energy eigenfunctions for the infinite square well indicate a possible misunderstanding of the integration process. The conversation highlights the necessity of using LaTeX for clear communication in quantum mechanics discussions.
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I need to solve Cn for a wave function, and have reached the following integral:

Cn = -[√(1/a)](a/nπ)[cos(nπx/a)(ψ1(x)+ψ2(x))+∫cos(u)(dψ1(x)/dx)dx+∫cos(u)(dψ2(x)/dx)dx]This is a simplified version of the original equation, for
elaboration Cn is the constant for linear combinations of a wave function. This is also strictly for a infinite stairwell wave function. I need help solving this.
 
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Cn = -[√(1/a)](a/nπ)[cos(nπx/a)(ψ1(x)+ψ2(x))+∫cos(u)(dψ1(x)/dx)dx+∫cos(u)(dψ2(x)/dx)dx]
Lets see if I can tidy that up:
##c_n = -\left[\frac{1}{\sqrt{a}}\frac{a}{n\pi} (\psi_1(x)+\psi_2(x))\cos n\pi x/a + \int \cos u \frac{d}{dx}\psi_1(x)\; dx + \int\cos u \frac{d}{dx}\psi_2(x) \; dx \right]##
... that cannot be correct (unless ##c_n## is a function of x): have you missed out an integral sign there?
... when you change variable, you need to express the whole integral in terms of the same variable.
... you cannot solve the integrals given without an explicit form for ##\psi_1## and ##\psi_2## ... or some indication of what they are supposed to be;
... when presenting a problem, please show us the original problem statement. It looks like you already have a linear combination of wavefunctions, so it is unclear what this ##c_n## is supposed to do. I have a feeling you are going about your task the wrong way.

I mean; I can see terms that look like ##\phi_n = A\cos n\pi x/a##
... which, for n=1,3,5... and ##A=\sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}##, are energy eigenfunctions for an infinite square well, width ##a##, centered on the origin. Maybe you used ##\phi = A\sin n\pi x/a## and what I see is the result of an attempt at integration by parts?

You often need to integrate by parts twice to get something useful.
Note: ##\frac{d^2}{dx^2}\psi_n = -\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}\big(E_n - V(x)\big)\psi_n## because Schrodinger.

Note: to do QM, you really really need LaTeX.
 
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Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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