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I have a characteristic polynomial: λ

^{2}+ i = 0.........how do I solve for the eigenvalues?

They're suppose to be + or - (√2/2)(1 - i) How'd they get those?

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- Thread starter trap101
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- #1

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I have a characteristic polynomial: λ

They're suppose to be + or - (√2/2)(1 - i) How'd they get those?

- #2

Dick

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I have a characteristic polynomial: λ^{2}+ i = 0.........how do I solve for the eigenvalues?

They're suppose to be + or - (√2/2)(1 - i) How'd they get those?

λ^2=(-i)=exp(i*3*pi/2). Use deMoivre.

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I'm kind of shaky with deMoivre, is there another way?

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Dick

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I'm kind of shaky with deMoivre, is there another way?

Only harder ways. deMoivre is the easy way. One square root of exp(i*t) is exp(i*t/2). What does that lead to your case? Then use exp(i*t/2)=cos(t/2)+i*sin(t/2).

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Another question, just out of curiosity:

Say I have a basis for the Ker(T). T being the transformation. Say I have an arbitrary vector

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Dick

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Another question, just out of curiosity:

Say I have a basis for the Ker(T). T being the transformation. Say I have an arbitrary vectorvin V. Can I writevas a linear combination of the basis of the Ker(T), and if so do the co-efficients that I obtain from this linear combination make a co-ordinate vector in V, that if I apply the transformation T to this co-ordinate vector, will it map to the null-space in Im(T)?

Ok, for the first one you need (a+bi)(a+bi)=a^2-b^2+2abi=(-i). Equating real and imaginary parts you get two equations for the real numbers a and b. Now try to solve them.

For the second one. You can't write an arbitrary element of element of V as a combination of the basis of Ker(T) unless it's in Ker(T). And then it will map to 0 in Im(T). I'm not sure what the real question is here?

- #7

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For the second one. You can't write an arbitrary element of element of V as a combination of the basis of Ker(T) unless it's in Ker(T). And then it will map to 0 in Im(T). I'm not sure what the real question is here?

Yup, that's what I was asking about.

Ok, for the first one you need (a+bi)(a+bi)=a^2-b^2+2abi=(-i). Equating real and imaginary parts you get two equations for the real numbers a and b. Now try to solve them.

so I get two equations: a

I'm also trying the deMoivre way. So as of now, I'm converting -i into polar co-ordinates in order to use de Moivre: so currently I have 1 sin[itex]\sigma[/itex], how do you get [itex]\sigma[/itex] to be pi/2 ?

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-1 = 1 sin[itex]\sigma[/itex], and then figured out for [itex]\sigma[/itex].

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wanted to delete this message.......I'm actually still puzzled when it comes to the -pi/2

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Dick

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wanted to delete this message.......I'm actually still puzzled when it comes to the -pi/2

exp(-i*pi/2)=cos(-pi/2)+i*sin(-pi/2)=(-i), right? A square root of that is exp(-i*pi/4)=cos(-pi/4)+i*sin(-pi/4). Which equals?

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