Solving for the Period of a Simple Pendulum with Given Initial Conditions

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Caltez
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Homework Statement


[/B]
A simple pendulum with l = 9.8m satisfies the equation:
[tex]\ddot{\theta} + \sin{\theta} = 0[/tex]

if [tex]\Theta_{0} = A[/tex]

Show that the period T is given by:
[tex]T = \int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}\left(\frac{1}{(1 - \alpha \sin^2{\phi})^\frac{1}{2} }\right)d\phi[/tex]

where,
[tex]\alpha=\sin^2{\frac{1}{2}\Theta_{0}}[/tex]

2. Relevant equation

It seems that I can use:
[tex]t=\int\left(\frac{1}{\pm(\frac{2E}{m}-\frac{k}{m}x^2)^\frac{1}{2}}\right)dx[/tex]
to find a T expression

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
I start with:
[tex]t=\int\left(\frac{1}{\pm(\frac{2E}{m}-\frac{k}{m}\theta^2)^\frac{1}{2}}\right)d\theta[/tex]

I find the terms in the rational:
[tex]\frac{2E}{m}=\frac{2}{2m}(m\dot{\theta}^2 + \omega_{0}^2 \theta^2)[/tex]
[tex]k=\omega_{0}^2 m[/tex]
Substitute back into t:
[tex]t=\int\left(\frac{1}{\pm(\dot{\theta}^2-\omega_{0}\theta^2 + \omega_{0}\theta^2)^\frac{1}{2}}\right)d\theta[/tex]
which is just [tex]\ln{\dot{\theta}}[/tex]
at this point I am doubting whether I am on the right track, any insight would help tremendously!
 
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Sure thing, here's the actual question.
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Caltez said:

Homework Statement


[/B]
A simple pendulum with l = 9.8m satisfies the equation:
[tex]\ddot{\theta} + \sin{\theta} = 0[/tex]

if [tex]\Theta_{0} = A[/tex]

Show that the period T is given by:
[tex]T = \int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}\left(\frac{1}{(1 - \alpha \sin^2{\phi})^\frac{1}{2} }\right)d\phi[/tex]

where,
[tex]\alpha=\sin^2{\frac{1}{2}\Theta_{0}}[/tex]

2. Relevant equation

It seems that I can use:
[tex]t=\int\left(\frac{1}{\pm(\frac{2E}{m}-\frac{k}{m}x^2)^\frac{1}{2}}\right)dx[/tex]
to find a T expression

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
I start with:
[tex]t=\int\left(\frac{1}{\pm(\frac{2E}{m}-\frac{k}{m}\theta^2)^\frac{1}{2}}\right)d\theta[/tex]

I find the terms in the rational:
[tex]\frac{2E}{m}=\frac{2}{2m}(m\dot{\theta}^2 + \omega_{0}^2 \theta^2)[/tex]
[tex]k=\omega_{0}^2 m[/tex]
Substitute back into t:
[tex]t=\int\left(\frac{1}{\pm(\dot{\theta}^2-\omega_{0}\theta^2 + \omega_{0}\theta^2)^\frac{1}{2}}\right)d\theta[/tex]
which is just [tex]\ln{\dot{\theta}}[/tex]
at this point I am doubting whether I am on the right track, any insight would help tremendously!

Get rid of the ##\pm## sign in your expression for ##t##, The quantity ##( \cdots )^{1/2}## in the denominator is always ##> 0## (by definition of the 1/2-power function), and ##t > 0## also. Therefore, choose the + square root.
 
Caltez said:
It seems that I can use:
[tex]t=\int\left(\frac{1}{\pm(\frac{2E}{m}-\frac{k}{m}x^2)^\frac{1}{2}}\right)dx[/tex]
to find a T expression.
You might want to rethink this. The denominator comes from solving for the speed in ##\frac 12 mv^2 + \frac 12 kx^2 = E##, and the potential term corresponds to a force ##F = -kx##. That's not the same situation you have for the pendulum. The restoring torque isn't a linear function of ##\theta##.