Nope still have that pesky alpha, and I feel like I'm so close too.
Can anyone see where I'm going wrong?
Starting with
\phi(p) = \frac{2A}{(2\pi/\hbar)^{3/2}}\frac{2\pi}{k}\int^\infty_0{rSin(kr)e^{-\alpha r}}.dr
Concentrating on the integral, I used by parts making the allocating the following.
\frac{dv}{dr} = e^{-\alpha r}Sin(kr) thus using the standard integral I mentioned I get v = \frac{e^{-\alpha r}}{k^2-\alpha^2}(- \alpha Sin(kr)-kCos(kr))
u = r thus \frac{du}{dr} = 1
Subbing this into the by parts formula I get.
[\frac{re^{-\alpha r}}{k^2-\alpha^2}(-\alpha Sin(kr) - kCos(kr))] - \frac{- \alpha}{k^2- \alpha^2}\int{e^{-\alpha r}Sin(kr)}.dr -\frac{k}{k^2-\alpha^2}\int{e^{-\alpha r}Cos(kr)}.dr
Making the integration gives me three terms, again, using the standard integrals.
[\frac{re^{-\alpha r}}{k^2-\alpha^2}(-\alpha Sin(kr) - kCos(kr))] - [\frac{- \alpha}{k^2-\alpha^2}}(-\alpha Sin(kr) - kCos(kr))] - [\frac{k}{k^2 - \alpha^2}(-\alpha Cos(kr) + kSin(kr))]
The terms have limits between zero and infinity. The infinity terms cancel as exp(-infinity) is zero. So only the zero substitutions count. As r = 0 the first term is canceled to zero. And as Sin zero is zero only the cos terms have anny significance. The Cos reduced to 1 and so I'm left with.
\frac{- \alpha}{k^2- \alpha^2}(\frac{k}{k^2-\alpha^2}) - \frac{k}{k^2-\alpha^2}({\frac{\alpha}{k^2 -\alpha^2})
Leaving me with \frac{2k \alpha}{(k^2-\alpha^2)^2}
And thus the same answer as before. The 2 belongs and the k cancels, its just the alpha that shouldn't be there that I can see. I can't see my error (I'm terrible at finding mistakes) can any of you guys (Assuming what I've written makes sense).
Thanks
