Yes, it does:
[tex]I = \int_0^\infty e^{-ax} \sin{bx} dx[/tex]
Let [itex]u= e^{-ax}[/itex], [itex]dv= sin(bx)dx[/itex]
Then [itex]du= -ae^{-ax}dx[/itex], [itex]v= -\frac{1}{b}cos(bx)[/itex]
so the integral becomes
[tex]I= -\frac{1}{b}e^{-ax}cos(bx)\left|_0^\inftjy- \frac{a}{b}\int_0^\inty}e^{-ax}cos(bx)dx[/tex]
Since e-ax goes to 0 as x goes to infinity, while cos(bx) is bounded, that is
[tex]I= \frac{1}{b}- \frac{a}{b}\int_0^\inty}e^{-ax}cos(bx)dx[/tex]
Now let [itex]u= e^{-ax}[/itex], [itex]dv= cos(bx)[/itex]. Again we have [itex]du= -a e^{-ax}dx[/itex], [itex]v= \frac{1}{b}sin(bx)[/tex]<br />
The integral is now:<br />
[tex]I= \frac{1}{b}- \frac{a^2}{b^2}\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx[/tex]<br />
But remember that [itex]I= \int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx[/itex]<br />
so that equation says<br />
[itex]\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx= \frac{1}{b}- \frac{a^2}{b^2}\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx[/tex]<br />
so <br />
[tex]\left(1+frac{a^2}{b^2}\right)\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx= \frac{1}{b}[/tex]<br />
[tex]\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx= \frac{b}{a^2+b^2}[/tex]<br />
(Modulo any silly litte errors from working too fast!)[/itex][/itex]