MHB Solving Limits of Integrals: Advice & Tips

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The discussion focuses on solving limits of integrals using integration by parts, specifically for the integral involving arctan(x) and cos(nx). The initial approach involves setting up the limit and applying integration by parts, leading to a formulation that includes the sine function and an integral that needs evaluation. The key insight is that as n approaches infinity, the oscillatory nature of the sine function allows for bounding the integral, ultimately leading to the conclusion that the limit evaluates to zero. The Riemann-Lebesgue lemma is referenced to support this conclusion, emphasizing the behavior of integrals of oscillatory functions. The thread provides a structured method for tackling similar problems in calculus.
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I tried to use integration by parts.
I took f(x)=arctan(x) => f'(x)= 1/x^2+1
g'(x)=cos(nx) => g(x)= sin(nx)/n
So I get sin(nx)/n * arctan(x) - integral from 0 to 1 from sin(nx)/n(x^2+1)
How to continue ?
I'm always getting stuck with this kind of exercises ( limits of integrals ) because I don't know how to replace n (infinity) in functions and I noticed that I have to use intervals and inequalities to resolve this kind of limits.
Some ideas?
 

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I've moved this thread here to our "Calculus" forum since it involves integration.

I would begin by writing:

$$L=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\int_0^1 \arctan(x)\cos(nx)\,dx\right)$$

Using IBP in the integral, let's try:

$$u=\arctan(x)\implies du=\frac{1}{x^2+1}\,dx$$

$$dv=\cos(nx)\,dx\implies v=\frac{1}{n}\sin(nx)$$

And so:

$$\int_0^1 \arctan(x)\cos(nx)\,dx=\left[\frac{\arctan(x)\sin(nx)}{n}\right]_0^1-\frac{1}{n}\int_0^1 \frac{\sin(nx)}{x^2+1}\,dx=\frac{\pi\sin(n)}{4n}-\frac{1}{n}\int_0^1 \frac{\sin(nx)}{x^2+1}\,dx$$

Hence:

$$L=-\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac{1}{n}\int_0^1 \frac{\sin(nx)}{x^2+1}\,dx\right)$$

Now, it seems to me considering an increasingly oscillating but bounded sinusoid (which varies from -1 to 1) we can state:

$$\int_0^1 \frac{\sin(nx)}{x^2+1}\,dx\le 2\int_0^1 \frac{1}{x^2+1}\,dx=\frac{\pi}{2}$$

And so:

$$L=-\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}\right)=0$$
 
Riemann-Lebesgue lemma:

If $f$ is a real or complex valued measurable function defined on $I$ and Lebesgue integrable over $I$ then:

$\displaystyle \lim_{|\lambda| \to \infty}\int_{I} f(x) \cos({\lambda x})\,\mathrm{d}{x} = \lim_{|\lambda| \to \infty} \int_{I} f(x) \sin({\lambda x})\,\mathrm{d}{x}=0.$​
 
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