Some questions on l'Hôpital rules

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    l'hopital Rules
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around l'Hôpital's Rule, specifically its formulation, interpretation, and application in calculus. Participants explore the conditions under which the rule applies, the nature of limits involved, and the distinction between different sources of information regarding the rule.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants question whether the limit as ##c\rightarrow{a^+}## of ##\dfrac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}## is equivalent to the quotient ##\dfrac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}## itself, suggesting it depends on whether the quotient is well-defined at ##c##.
  • There is a discussion about the interpretation of l'Hôpital's Rule, with some participants noting that Wikipedia mentions only one rule, while others believe there are two distinct rules.
  • Participants express uncertainty about the meaning of "well-defined" in the context of limits and the implications of encountering forms like ##\frac{0}{0}##.
  • One participant provides an example illustrating the need to apply l'Hôpital's Rule multiple times when faced with indeterminate forms.
  • There is a clarification that ##c## is not a constant but a function of ##x##, which arises from applying the Mean Value Theorem, leading to a more nuanced understanding of the limits involved.
  • Some participants reflect on the necessity of ensuring that both right-hand and left-hand limits are equal when evaluating limits approaching a point.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express varying interpretations of l'Hôpital's Rule and its applications, indicating that multiple competing views remain. There is no consensus on whether there is one or two rules, and the discussion about the conditions for limits remains unresolved.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include potential misunderstandings of the definitions of limits and the conditions under which l'Hôpital's Rule applies. The discussion also highlights the dependence on specific examples and the need for clarity in mathematical expressions.

mcastillo356
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Bernouili's work, french mathematician's work, l'Hôpital first rule...Need some more knowledge
Hi, PF

Got questions to start with: ¿some casual background about these Rules?; ¿are them two, as the textbook says?.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/L'Hôpital's_rule (only one statement found)

Here goes the first, from "Calculus, 7th ed, R, Adams, C. Essex"

THEOREM 3 The first l'Hôpital Rule

Suppose the functions ##f## and ##g## are differentiable on the interval ##(a,b)## and ##g'(x)\neq 0## there. Suppose also that
(i) ##\lim_{x\to a^+}f(x)=\lim{x\to a^+}g(x)=0## and
(ii) ##\lim_{x\to a^+}{\frac{f′(x)}{g′(x)}}=L## (where ##L## is finite or ##\infty## or ##−\infty##)
Then
##\lim_{x\to a^+}{\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=L}##
Similar results hold if every occurrence of ##\lim_{x\rightarrow {a^+}}## is replaced by ##\lim_{x\rightarrow {b^-}}## or even ##\lim_{x\rightarrow{c^+}}## where ##a<c<b##. The cases ##a=-\infty## and ##b=\infty## are also allowed

PROOF We prove the case involving ##\lim_{x\rightarrow{a^+}}## for finite ##a##. Define

##F(x)=\begin{cases}f(x)&\mbox{if}a<x<b\\0&\mbox{if} x=a \end{cases}##

and

##G(x)=\begin{cases}g(x)&\mbox{if}a<x<b\\0&\mbox{if} x=a \end{cases}##

Then ##F## and ##G## are continuous on the interval ##[a,x]## and differentiable on the interval ##(a,x)## for every ##x## in ##(a,b)##. By the Generalized Mean-Value Theorem (...) there exists a number ##c## in ##(a,x)## such that
##\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\frac{F(x)}{G(x)}=\frac{F(x)-F(a)}{G(x)-G(a)}=\frac{F'(c)}{G'(c)}=\frac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}##.

Since ##a<c<x##, if ##x\rightarrow{a^+}##, then neccesarily ##c\rightarrow{a^+}##, so we have

##\lim{x\to{a^+}}{\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}}=\lim{c\to{a^+}}{\frac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}}=L##

Mean Value Theorem seems a limitless tool in Analysis. Question: ##\lim{c\to{a^+}}{\frac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}}=L=\frac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}##? Think so. At this point, ##c\rightarrow{a^+}## doesn´t add worth information; it's a useless limit

Attemtp: Wikipedia isn't wrong; is straight, I guess; but incomprehensive for me. I understand what the textbook says, but need some kind of text comment on the aim of my textbook.Thanks. I think LaTeX is not well done, please PF, check it.
Edited at 6:39 AM Europe timing
 
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What's the question?
 
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Hi, the questions are: is the limit when ##c\rightarrow{a^+}## of ##\dfrac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}## the same as the quotient ##\dfrac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}## itself? I think so because ##a<c##;
Wikipedia truly states only one l'Hôpital Rule? (the article, I mean, the maths at the second paragraph are fine: no need to mention two Rules -fine to me-);
Which source must I pick? I am tempted not to reject anyone; but doubts arise. Let's take 1st l'Hôpital rule: why does look at ##x## when tends to ##a## from the right?; Wikipedia talks about an interval ##I## an ##x## tending, presumably -but not for sure- to ##c## (more intuitive to me).
 
mcastillo356 said:
Hi, the questions are: is the limit when ##c\rightarrow{a^+}## of ##\dfrac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}## the same as the quotient ##\dfrac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}## itself?
Only if the quotient is well defined at ##c##. It might be another limit of the form ##\frac 0 0##, for example.
 
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PeroK said:
Only if the quotient is well defined at ##c##. It might be another limit of the form ##\frac 0 0##, for example.
Or ##\pm \frac \infty \infty##.
 
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PeroK said:
Only if the quotient is well defined at ##c##. It might be another limit of the form ##\frac 0 0##, for example.
Could explain some more about this quote? No attempt, clue about it. The question is: how the quotient, and why, should be well defined at ##c#?. What means to be well defined? Don't manage well in Wikipedia.
 
mcastillo356 said:
Could explain some more about this quote? No attempt, clue about it. The question is: how the quotient, and why, should be well defined at ##c#?. What means to be well defined? Don't manage well in Wikipedia.
To take an example: suppose we want to evaluate the following limit using L'Hopital's rule:
$$\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x^3}{x^2}$$If we differentiate top and bottom, we get another indeterminate form:
$$\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x^3}{x^2} =\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{3x^2}{2x}$$Your question, if I understand it, is that why don't we drop the limit on the RHS and evaluate the function at ##x = 0##? The answer is because we can't as we have another expression of the ##\frac 0 0##.

But, we can apply L'Hopital's rule a second time to get:
$$\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{3x^2}{2x} =\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{6x}{2} = 0$$This time we have got a function where the limit can be evaluated simply.

In general, you sometimes have to apply the L'Hopital rule several times.
 
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mcastillo356 said:
Since ##a<c<x##, if ##x\rightarrow{a^+}##, then neccesarily ##c\rightarrow{a^+}##, so we have

##\lim{x\to{a^+}}{\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}}=\lim{c\to{a^+}}{\frac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}}=L##

Mean Value Theorem seems a limitless tool in Analysis. Question: ##\lim{c\to{a^+}}{\frac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}}=L=\frac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}##? Think so. At this point, ##c\rightarrow{a^+}## doesn´t add worth information; it's a useless limit
But c is not a constant: it is a function of x as it is the result of applying the mean value theorem to a function on [a,x]. So it is more accurate, and perhaps clearer, to write <br /> \lim_{x \to a^{+}} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = \lim_{x \to a^{+}} \frac{f&#039;(c(x))}{g&#039;(c(x))}. At this point we can replace c(x) with a dummy variable (either introducing a new symbol or repurposing c or x) to get <br /> \lim_{x \to a^{+}} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = \lim_{c \to a^{+}} \frac{f&#039;(c)}{g&#039;(c)}.
 
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PeroK said:
Your question, if I understand it, is that why don't we drop the limit on the RHS and evaluate the function at ##x = 0##? The answer is because we can't as we have another expression of the ##\frac 0 0##.
Well, if I've understood, right hand side limit and left hand side limit must be equal to say we have a limit when the argument tends to some ##a\in{\mathbb{R}}##. Basically they can differ in many basic limit operations.
 
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pasmith said:
But c is not a constant: it is a function of x as it is the result of applying the mean value theorem to a function on [a,x]
Brilliant, thanks indeed for the post, I really thought I was facing reals. Nice remark
 

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