Space-time interval invariance question

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The discussion centers on the invariance of the space-time interval in one spatial dimension, questioning whether it holds for arbitrary events in different inertial frames. It is established that the space-time interval remains invariant under Lorentz transformations for any events, not just those generated by light signals or tardyons. The components x and t are identified as parts of a four-vector, which maintains its scalar product form under Lorentz transformations. Additionally, the relationship between lengths measured in different frames is explored, revealing that the non-proper lengths do not transform via Lorentz transformations as initially expected. The conversation concludes by suggesting a potential connection between these concepts and wave vectors.
bernhard.rothenstein
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Cinsider please the invariance of the space-time interval in an one space dimension approach
(x-0)2-c2(t-0)2=(x'-0)2-c2(t'-0)2
My question is: does it hold for arbitrary events (x,t) in I and (x',t') in I?
Does it hold only in the case when the events are genertated in I and I' by the same light signal (x=ct,t=x/c); (x'=ct',t'=x'/c) or in the case when the events are generated by the same tardyon moving with speed u in I and u' in I' i.e. (x=ut,t=x/u) and (x'=u't', t'=x'/u')?
Are x and x' the components of a "two" vector or only x=ct, x'=ct' and x=ut, x'=u't', u amd u' being related by the addition law of parallel speeds?
Thanks for your answer.
 
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bernhard.rothenstein said:
Cinsider please the invariance of the space-time interval in an one space dimension approach
(x-0)2-c2(t-0)2=(x'-0)2-c2(t'-0)2
My question is: does it hold for arbitrary events (x,t) in I and (x',t') in I?
QUOTE]
It holds for arbitrary x and t with x' and t' given by a LT from S to S'.
 
bernhard.rothenstein said:
Does it hold only in the case when the events are genertated in I and I' by the same light signal (x=ct,t=x/c); (x'=ct',t'=x'/c) or in the case when the events are generated by the same tardyon moving with speed u in I and u' in I' i.e. (x=ut,t=x/u) and (x'=u't', t'=x'/u')?
It holds for any x and t. If x is written as x=ut, then x' will =u't', with u'given by the relativistic velocity addiltion.
 
bernhard.rothenstein said:
Are x and x' the components of a "two" vector or only x=ct, x'=ct' and x=ut, x'=u't', u amd u' being related by the addition law of parallel speeds?
x and t are two components of a four-vector, as are x' and t'. Writing x=ut implies that a consstant velocity, which is not necessary for t^2-x^2 to be invariant.
 
The "interval" -(x^0)^2+\vec x^2 is invariant because it's the Minkowski space "scalar product" of a four-vector with itself. The "scalar product" (which isn't really a scalar product since the result can be negative) is defined by

\langle y,x \rangle=y^T\eta x=-y^0x^0+\vec y\cdot\vec x

This is invariant under Lorentz transformations because all Lorentz transformations satisfy the condition \Lambda^T\eta\Lambda=\eta.

\langle \Lambda y,\Lambda x\rangle=(\Lambda y)^T\eta (\Lambda x)=y^T\Lambda^T\eta\Lambda x=y^T\eta x=\langle y,x \rangle
 
\Delta
clem said:
x and t are two components of a four-vector, as are x' and t'. Writing x=ut implies that a consstant velocity, which is not necessary for t^2-x^2 to be invariant.

Thanks for your answer. Consider please the inertial reference frames I, I' and I" in the standard arrangement. I' moves with velocity V relative to I and I" moves with speed u relative to I and with speed u' relative to I' all speed showing in the positive direction of the overlapped x, x' and x" axes. A rod of proper length L(0) is located along the overlapped axes at rest relative to I". Observers from I measure its Lorentz contracted length
L=L(0)(1-u2/c2)1/2. (1)
For observers from I' the length of the same rod is
L'=L(0)(1-u'2/c2)1/2 (2)
Eliminating L(0) between (1) and (2) we obtain that the non-proper lengths are related by
L=L'(1-u2/c2)1/2/(1-u'2)/c21/2) (3)
Expressing the right side of (3) as a function of u' via the addition law of parallel speeds it becomes
L=L'(1-V2/c2)1/2)/[1+Vu'/c2] (4)
resulting that L and L' do not transform via the Lorentz transformation. Under such conditions are L=Dx and L'Dx' the components of a "two vector? Equation (4) suggests that 1/L and 1/L' are. Is there some connection with the concept of wave vector?
 
In this video I can see a person walking around lines of curvature on a sphere with an arrow strapped to his waist. His task is to keep the arrow pointed in the same direction How does he do this ? Does he use a reference point like the stars? (that only move very slowly) If that is how he keeps the arrow pointing in the same direction, is that equivalent to saying that he orients the arrow wrt the 3d space that the sphere is embedded in? So ,although one refers to intrinsic curvature...

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