Spectral line width calculations

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In the discussion on spectral line width calculations, a user seeks clarification on how to determine the spread of wavelengths emitted by excited atoms in a gas. They mention the time-dependent wave function and express confusion over the math involved in calculating the spectral line width. A response outlines an alternative method to approximate the width without a Fourier transform, explaining that the frequency difference can be derived from the phase difference over time. The approximation suggests that the spread in frequencies is roughly Df = r/8, leading to a final line width of gamma = 2r, which represents the "full width at half maximum." This approach provides a practical understanding of the spectral line characteristics.
Mjolnir
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So I'm in an intro quantum physics course, and while I'm sure this is a really simple problem, I'm just not getting the math to work out here.

Say you excite the atoms of some gas such that they emit light at a wavelength of 5500 angstroms as they fall back to the ground state. Now if the light intensity falls off with I(t) = I*e^{-r*t} (with r = 5*10^(-7) Hz), we can get the time dependence of the wave function to be e^{-r*t/2}*e^{-i*\omega_{0}*t}, correct? Now given this, how would you go about finding the spread of wavelengths of the spectral line? Now the idea I would think is to find <E^2> - <E>^2, and then just set the standard deviation of lamda equal to h*c over this? Anyway, as I said the math just isn't working out. So as much as I hate my first post here to be a question, if someone could maybe layout a general process for doing this (without actually plugging in the values, of course; the idea is to understand this on my own), it would be much appreciated.
 
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Fourier transform the wave function using exp(-iEt/h).
This gives you the WF in energy space.
Its absolute value squared gives you the line shape.
 
Mjolnir said:
... we can get the time dependence of the wave function to be e^{-r*t/2}*e^{-i*\omega_{0}*t}, correct? Now given this, how would you go about finding the spread of wavelengths of the spectral line? ...

You can get an approximation of the width without having to perform the Fourier transform. Let Df be the difference in frequency between two waves at the upper and lower bounds of the distribution. As time t progresses the phase difference between the two extreme waves will increase as 2pi*Df*t. The waves will strongly interfere when the phase difference reaches pi at time T, so that 2*Df*T = 1. Now T can be equated with the time-width of your waveform, approximately 4/r (2 times 2/r), and the spread in your frequencies is approximately Df = r/8.

This doesn't give the exact answer, which depends on details in the shape of the distribution. But it is close, and it helps demonstrate what is going on.
 
I gave you the method of doing it.
If you just want the answer, the width of the line is gamma=2r.
gamma is the "full width at half maximum".
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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