MHB Splitting field does not seem to exist... :O

  • Thread starter Thread starter caffeinemachine
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Field Splitting
caffeinemachine
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
799
Reaction score
15
(Herstein Pg 222) DEFINITION: If $f(x) \in F[x]$, a finite extension $E$ of $F$ is said to be a splitting field over $F$ for $f(x)$ if over $E$(that is, in $E[x]$), but not over any proper sub-field of $E$, $f(x)$ can be factored as a product of linear factors.

Now here's my question. Take $p(x)=x^2-4 \in F[x]$, $F$ is the field of Complex Numbers. What is the splitting over $F$ for $p(x)$??

I would be tempted to say that $F$ itself is the splitting field over $F$ for $p(x)$. But then $\mathbb{R}$, the field of real numbers, would be a proper sub-field of $F$ in which $p(x)$ can be factored as a product of linear factors, viz, p(x)=(x-2)(x+2).

What have I missed?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Re: splitting field soes not seem to exist.. :O

there is a slight omission in the definition. recall that E is a splitting field over F.

that means that the proper subfields referenced in the definition, are to be understood as "sub-fields over F", that is, extensions K, F ≤ K < E.

since x2-4 splits in C, the splitting field of x2-4 over C, is C itself.
of course we can find smaller fields in which this polynomial splits. but since C already contains these smaller fields, we really aren't "extending anything".

for emphasis, the definition of a splitting field for a polynomial p(x) in F[x], depends on F.

for example, the splitting field of x2+1 over Q is Q(i), the gaussian rationals. the splitting field of x2+1 over R, is C, the complex numbers. these are *not* the same fields.

in other words, we are talking about a unique (up to isomorphism) extension of F, not a unique (up to isomorphism) field.
 
##\textbf{Exercise 10}:## I came across the following solution online: Questions: 1. When the author states in "that ring (not sure if he is referring to ##R## or ##R/\mathfrak{p}##, but I am guessing the later) ##x_n x_{n+1}=0## for all odd $n$ and ##x_{n+1}## is invertible, so that ##x_n=0##" 2. How does ##x_nx_{n+1}=0## implies that ##x_{n+1}## is invertible and ##x_n=0##. I mean if the quotient ring ##R/\mathfrak{p}## is an integral domain, and ##x_{n+1}## is invertible then...
The following are taken from the two sources, 1) from this online page and the book An Introduction to Module Theory by: Ibrahim Assem, Flavio U. Coelho. In the Abelian Categories chapter in the module theory text on page 157, right after presenting IV.2.21 Definition, the authors states "Image and coimage may or may not exist, but if they do, then they are unique up to isomorphism (because so are kernels and cokernels). Also in the reference url page above, the authors present two...
When decomposing a representation ##\rho## of a finite group ##G## into irreducible representations, we can find the number of times the representation contains a particular irrep ##\rho_0## through the character inner product $$ \langle \chi, \chi_0\rangle = \frac{1}{|G|} \sum_{g\in G} \chi(g) \chi_0(g)^*$$ where ##\chi## and ##\chi_0## are the characters of ##\rho## and ##\rho_0##, respectively. Since all group elements in the same conjugacy class have the same characters, this may be...
Back
Top