Srednicki QFT chapter 8 question

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of the 1-i ε trick in quantum field theory as presented in chapter 8 of Srednicki's textbook. Participants are examining the implications of this technique on the Hamiltonian density and its relationship to mass modifications, exploring both theoretical and mathematical aspects.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions how multiplying the Hamiltonian density by 1-i ε leads to an equivalent substitution of m² with m² - i ε, expressing confusion over the process.
  • Another participant references a previous chapter where Srednicki explains the concept in the context of the harmonic oscillator, suggesting that this earlier explanation may clarify the current discussion.
  • A different participant points out that the approach in chapter 7 differs significantly, providing an example of how the 1-i ε trick modifies the Hamiltonian for a harmonic oscillator, but struggles to see how a similar process applies to Srednicki's mass substitution.
  • One reply advises against taking Srednicki's comment too literally, suggesting that the purpose of the i ε term is to adjust the pole structure in the propagator and encourages exploring whether modifying only the mass is adequate for this purpose.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the application of the 1-i ε trick, with some finding the connection to mass modification unclear. There is no consensus on how to interpret or apply Srednicki's explanation.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight potential limitations in understanding the application of the 1-i ε trick, particularly regarding the differences in context between chapters 7 and 8, and the assumptions underlying the pole structure in propagators.

LAHLH
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Hi,

In chapter 8 Srednicki employs the [tex]1-i \epsilon[/tex] trick. He multiplies the Hamiltonian desity,

[tex]H=\frac{1}{2} \Pi^2+\frac{1}{2}(\nabla\phi)^2+\frac{1}{2}m^2\phi^2[/tex]

by this [tex]1-i \epsilon[/tex], and says it's equivalent to if we replaced m^2 with [tex]m^2-i \epsilon[/tex]. I can't see how this is?

Thanks
 
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He explains this in detail in the earlier chapter on the harmonic oscillator.
 
In chptr 7, it's completely different,

[tex]H(P,Q)=\frac{P^2 m^{-1}}{2}+\frac{1}{2}m\omega^2 Q^2[/tex]

So multiplying by [tex]1-i\epsilon[/tex], gives :

[tex]H(P,Q)=\frac{P^2 (1-i\epsilon)m^{-1}}{2}+\frac{1}{2}(1-i\epsilon) m\omega^2 Q^2[/tex]

So directly you can see this is equivalent to if we used [tex]m^{-1} \rightarrow (1-i\epsilon)m^{-1}[/tex] and [tex]m\omega^2 \rightarrow (1-i\epsilon)m\omega^2[/tex]

I fail to see how to perform in a similar process to get Srednicki's mass substitution for the H in my first post. Thanks.
 
Hi LAHLH,

I would recommend not trying to take Srednicki's comment too literally. A useful point of view is the following. The purpose of the [tex]i \epsilon[/tex] is to get the pole structure right in the propagator. To make sense of what Srednicki is saying, try to determine if modifying only the mass by [tex]i \epsilon[/tex] is sufficient to modify the pole structure so that integrating along the real line is the "right" contour.
 

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