Strange proposition in calculus

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that for an injective and continuous function f(x) defined on the interval [a, b], where f(a) < f(b), the range of f is the interval [f(a), f(b)]. The Intermediate Value Theorem is the primary tool suggested for this proof. A participant initially misinterpreted the proposition, using the function f(x) = x as a counterexample, but later recognized that the question indeed asks to demonstrate the range is [f(a), f(b)].

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  • Understanding of injective functions
  • Knowledge of the Intermediate Value Theorem
  • Familiarity with continuous functions
  • Basic calculus concepts related to function ranges
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  • Explore properties of injective functions in calculus
  • Investigate examples of continuous functions and their ranges
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Students studying calculus, particularly those focusing on function properties and theorems, as well as educators seeking to clarify concepts related to injective and continuous functions.

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Homework Statement



f(x) is an injective function (1 to 1) and continuous in [a, b], and f(a) < f(b). Show that the
range of f is the interval [f(a), f(b)]

Homework Equations



Intermediate Value Theorem

The Attempt at a Solution


We are asked to use the intermediate value theorem to prove it. However, it seems to me that the proposition is false.

Suppose f(x) = x, a = 0, b = 1. f(x) is 1 to 1, continuous in [a,b] and f(a) < f(b), but its range is (-inf, inf), not [0, 1].

Am I reading this question wrong??
 
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I think the question is asking you to show that the range on [a,b] is [f(a),f(b)]
 
Ah... that makes sense...
 

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