Subscripts in partial derivative notation

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the notation of partial derivatives, specifically the interpretation of subscripts in expressions like fxy. Participants explore the meaning of this notation and how to compute such derivatives in the context of functions of multiple variables.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Homework-related

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses confusion about the notation fxy, questioning whether it implies multiplication of two derivatives.
  • Another participant clarifies that fxy represents the partial derivative of fx with respect to y, not a multiplication of derivatives.
  • There is a discussion about the process of taking the partial derivative first with respect to x and then with respect to y.
  • A later reply mentions a property of mixed partial derivatives, stating that under certain conditions, fxy equals fyx.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the interpretation of the notation and the process for calculating mixed partial derivatives, but there is no explicit consensus on the broader implications or conditions under which the equality of mixed partials holds.

Contextual Notes

Participants do not specify the conditions under which the equality fxy = fyx holds, nor do they address potential limitations in their explanations.

chans
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Hi everyone,

We just started learning partial derivatives and I understand the fx notation, but I'm confused when I'm asked for the value of fxy. Does this mean multiply the two derivatives together?

For example:

What is fxy when f(x,y) = (x+2y)ln(xy)

Thanks!
 
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It means [itex](f_x)_y[/itex]. So it asks for the partial derivative in the y-direction of ##f_x##.

For example, if ##f(x,y)= x^2y+5y^2##, then ##f_x(x,y) = 2xy## and ##f_{xy}(x,y) = 2x##.
 
So basically I'll take the partial derivative with respect to x, then take the derivative of that with respect to y?
 
chans said:
So basically I'll take the partial derivative with respect to x, then take the derivative of that with respect to y?

Yes.

It is a curious property that (under very mild conditions), this is the same as taking the partial derivative with respect to y and then with respect to x. So ##f_{xy}=f_{yx}##.
 

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