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Main Question or Discussion Point
i want to use the fourier method to fins an summation for
y(x)=Absolute value(sin(x)) pi<x<pi
i know that cos(pi*n)=(1)^n
and get why they use cos(pi*(n+1))= (1)^(n+1)
but why is then cos(pi*(n1)) also (1)^(n+1)
(see attachment)
THANX!!
y(x)=Absolute value(sin(x)) pi<x<pi
i know that cos(pi*n)=(1)^n
and get why they use cos(pi*(n+1))= (1)^(n+1)
but why is then cos(pi*(n1)) also (1)^(n+1)
(see attachment)
THANX!!
Attachments

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