hey i've been working on this question http://img138.imageshack.us/img138/6457/gdgdad.jpg [Broken] the first two parts of the question seem easy enough, you just simple substitute the wave functions into the symmetric and anti-symmetric wave function definition. ψ=ψ1(1)ψ2(2)±ψ2(1)ψ1(2) Then the second part of the question you just take ψ*ψ for both cases. Theres two parts im a little worried about, Is the potential V=kr2 irrelevant? it seems to be irrelevant to me but i just wanted to make sure. i'm also not sure how to do 1c, i would say that the symmetric wave function would have a larger expectation value since the wave function is ψs=ψ1(1)ψ2(2)+ψ2(1)ψ1(2) and not -, so it would be bigger, but i'm not sure if that is correct, is V irrelevant and 1c as simple as i put it?