According to 't Hooft - Polyakov monopole solution, SO(3) is spontaneously broken down to U(1) and the unbroken mode works very well as the electromagnetic field. In this case we do not need dirac string but just some scalar field. At very large distance , the two massive gauge modes can be integrated out. So I guess the only degrees of freedom left is the massless unbroken mode and the scalar field. This looks like there is a magnetic monopole at the core. My question is : Can we relate this picture with those of Dirac or Schwinger where magnetic monopole was effectively regarded as some fundamental fermion field? I mean, how do we interpret the origin of the fermion field from the original SO(3) group?