Taylor/Maclaurin series of a function

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The discussion revolves around obtaining the Maclaurin series for the function f(x) = sin(x²)/x. Participants clarify that while sin(x²) can be expanded into a series, there is no need to separately expand 1/x since the multiplication by 1/x does not introduce additional terms requiring expansion. It is noted that the series converges for all x, and confusion arises regarding the undefined nature of terms at x=0. The consensus emphasizes that when multiplying functions, only one needs to be expanded into a series if the other is a simple function like 1/x. The conversation concludes with an acknowledgment of the unique nature of Taylor series and the specific conditions under which this approach is valid.
EEristavi
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Homework Statement


Obtain Maclaurin Series for:
f(x) = sin(x2)/x

Homework Equations


f(x) = ∑f(n)(c) (x-c)n / n! (for Maclaurin c = 0)

The Attempt at a Solution


I know that sin(x2) = x2 - (x2*3/3! +...

from the final answer I see, that this is just multiplied to 1/x.

This bothers me,
doesn't we have to expand 1/x also? Moreover, I see that every term for P(1/x) at x=0 is undefined => range must be (-∞, 0)∪(0, ∞)
 
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EEristavi said:

Homework Statement


Obtain Maclaurin Series for:
f(x) = sin(x2)/2

Homework Equations


f(x) = ∑f(n)(c) (x-c)n / n! (for Maclaurin c = 0)

The Attempt at a Solution


I know that sin(x2) = x2 - (x2*3/3! +...

from the final answer I see, that this is just multiplied to 1/x.

This bothers me,
doesn't we have to expand 1/x also? Moreover, I see that every term for P(1/x) at x=0 is undefined => range must be (-∞, 0)∪(0, ∞)
I don't see what you are talking about. The series you have given
$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(x^2)^{2n-1}}{(2n-1)!}=\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{x^{4n-2}}{(2n-1)!}$$ converges absolutely for all ##x## and there are no ##\frac 1 x## terms anywhere.
 
LCKurtz said:
there are no 1x1x\frac 1 x terms anywhere.

Aaah... sorry about that :( I accidentally divided by 2 - not x. I've edited now.
sorry again
 
EEristavi said:
from the final answer I see, that this is just multiplied to 1/x.

This bothers me,
doesn't we have to expand 1/x also?

Taylor series are unique. When you multiply by ##1/x## you get a power series. There's no need to generate a power series for ##1/x## to do this.
 
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So, if I understand correctly:
If I have complex function [e.g. f(x)g(x)] I can expand one of them and multiply to another
 
EEristavi said:
So, if I understand correctly:
If I have complex function [e.g. f(x)g(x)] I can expand one of them and multiply to another

It's only going to work when one of the functions is ##1/x## or ##1/x^2##; or, if one is a polynomial, then that it already the Taylor series. In general, you have to expand both.
 
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Thank you :)
 

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