Maclaurin Series for f(x)=(1-x)^-2: Find Solution

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the Maclaurin series for the function f(x) = (1-x)^-2. Participants are exploring the definition of a Maclaurin series and the assumption that the function has a power series expansion.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants describe their attempts to compute the first three derivatives of the function and evaluate them at x=0. There are questions about identifying patterns in the series expansion and the implications of using the binomial theorem.

Discussion Status

Some participants have shared their derivative calculations and initial terms of the series, while others are encouraging further exploration of patterns and general forms. There is a mix of approaches being discussed, including direct computation and the application of the binomial theorem.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the assumption that they must derive the series using the definition of the Maclaurin series, and there is an emphasis on understanding the general form of derivatives and series expansions.

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Homework Statement



Find the Maclaurin series for f(x)=(1-x)^-2 using the definition of a Macluarin series,[ Assume that f has a power series expansion. Also find

Homework Equations



Maclaurin Series

The Attempt at a Solution



Steps:

1) I found the first 3 derivative of the function

2) I plugged in 0 for x

3) try to use the Macclaurin Series
f(x)= f(0) + f'(0) x + f''(0) x^2 / 2! + f'''(0) x^3 / 3! +...From here, I'm am stuck.
 
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Physicsnoob90 said:

Homework Statement



Find the Maclaurin series for f(x)=(1-x)^-2 using the definition of a Macluarin series,[ Assume that f has a power series expansion. Also find

Homework Equations



Maclaurin Series


The Attempt at a Solution



Steps:

1) I found the first 3 derivative of the function

2) I plugged in 0 for x

3) try to use the Macclaurin Series
f(x)= f(0) + f'(0) x + f''(0) x^2 / 2! + f'''(0) x^3 / 3! +...


From here, I'm am stuck.

Let ##t = -x##, then ##f(x) = (1+t)^{-2}##

You now have a case of the binomial theorem with ##\alpha = -2##.

Do you know the binomial series?
 
Physicsnoob90 said:

Homework Statement



Find the Maclaurin series for f(x)=(1-x)^-2 using the definition of a Macluarin series,[ Assume that f has a power series expansion. Also find

Homework Equations



Maclaurin Series


The Attempt at a Solution



Steps:

1) I found the first 3 derivative of the function

2) I plugged in 0 for x

3) try to use the Macclaurin Series
f(x)= f(0) + f'(0) x + f''(0) x^2 / 2! + f'''(0) x^3 / 3! +...


From here, I'm am stuck.

Ok, so what did you get for the first three derivatives evaluated at x=0? What do you get for the first three terms of the series? Don't you see a pattern to continue?
 
Dick said:
Ok, so what did you get for the first three derivatives evaluated at x=0? What do you get for the first three terms of the series? Don't you see a pattern to continue?

Here is my work so far:

f(0) = 1
f'(x) = 2(1-x)^-3 ; f'(0) = 2
f''(x) = 6(1-x)^-4 ; f''(0) = 6
f'''(x) = 24(1-x)^-5 ; f'''(0) = 24


f(x) = (1-x)^-2

(1-x)^-2 = 1+2x+6/2! (x^2)+24/3! (x^3)+...
 
Physicsnoob90 said:
Here is my work so far:

f(0) = 1
f'(x) = 2(1-x)^-3 ; f'(0) = 2
f''(x) = 6(1-x)^-4 ; f''(0) = 6
f'''(x) = 24(1-x)^-5 ; f'''(0) = 24


f(x) = (1-x)^-2

(1-x)^-2 = 1+2x+6/2! (x^2)+24/3! (x^3)+...

Good! Expand the factorials. So you've got 1+2x+3x^2+4x^3+... Do you see the pattern? Can you argue why it must continue?
 
Notice every time you take a derivative, it has a "general form". Finding the ##n^{th}## derivative in a closed form, evaluated at ##a## will give you almost all of the work. Then every power series has the form:

##\sum_{n=0}^{∞} \frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!} (x-a)^n, \quad |x-a| < R##

Alternatively, you could appeal to the binomial theorem:

##(1+x)^{\alpha} = \sum_{k=0}^{∞} \begin{pmatrix}
\alpha \\
k
\end{pmatrix} x^k##

Where ##\begin{pmatrix}
\alpha \\
k
\end{pmatrix} = \frac{\alpha(\alpha-1)(\alpha-2) \cdots (\alpha - k + 1)}{k!}##

and

##\begin{pmatrix}
\alpha \\
0
\end{pmatrix} = 1##
 
Zondrina said:
Notice every time you take a derivative, it has a "general form". Finding the ##n^{th}## derivative in a closed form, evaluated at ##a## will give you almost all of the work. Then every power series has the form:

##\sum_{n=0}^{∞} \frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!} (x-a)^n, \quad |x-a| < R##

Alternatively, you could appeal to the binomial theorem:

##(1+x)^{\alpha} = \sum_{k=0}^{∞} \begin{pmatrix}
\alpha \\
k
\end{pmatrix} x^k##

Where ##\begin{pmatrix}
\alpha \\
k
\end{pmatrix} = \frac{\alpha(\alpha-1)(\alpha-2) \cdots (\alpha - k + 1)}{k!}##

and

##\begin{pmatrix}
\alpha \\
0
\end{pmatrix} = 1##

Thanks! This really made more sense than what i wrote on my class notes
 
Physicsnoob90 said:
Thanks! This really made more sense than what i wrote on my class notes

No problem. If you want an easy way to get ##R##, let ##c_n = \frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}##. Then every power series has the form:

##\sum_{n=0}^{∞} c_n (x-a)^n, \quad |x-a| < R##

With: ##R = \displaystyle \lim_{n→∞} |\frac{c_n}{c_{n+1}}|##
 

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