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Taylor series Mostly conceptual

  1. May 2, 2007 #1
    I was just curious why when doing a taylor series like xe^(-x^3) we must first find the series of e^x then basically work it from there, why cant we instead do it directly by taking the derivatives of xe^(-x^3). But doing it that way doesnt give a working taylor series why is this so?
  2. jcsd
  3. May 2, 2007 #2


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    You can do it either way. But the derivatives of xe^(-x^3) get complicated pretty fast. So you may just be doing it wrong. I probably would. It's just a question of choosing the easiest method.
    Last edited: May 2, 2007
  4. May 2, 2007 #3
    Oh ok I see. I was looking at the wrong answer, I think. Thanks though
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