mathwonk
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Here is an example of how euler, without differential or integral calculus, derives the correct formula for the infinite series expansion of an exponential function, by imprecise but amazingly intuitive approximations.
we know that a^0 = 1, hence, since small changes in the argument yield small changes in the output which are approximately linear, (the fundamental principle of the differential calculus), if w is very small, “infinitely small”, then a^w is essentially equal to 1 + kw, where k the derivative of the exponential function at 0. I will simplify by taking the base of the exponential function a, to be so that derivative is 1, (I am taking a = e), hence for w infinitely small we have a^w = 1+w.
Now let z be a finite quantity, and n an infinitely large integer, so that w = z/n is infinitely small.
Then a^z = a^[(z/n)(n)] = [a^w]^n = (1+w)^n = (1 + (nw/n))^n = (1+z/n)^n
= (by the binomial theorem) 1 + z + (z^2/2!)[n(n-1)/n^2] + (z^3/3!)[n(n-1)(n-2)/n^3] + ………
But since n is infinitely large, n/(n-1) = n/(n-2) = 1, and this gives:
a^z = 1+ z + z^2/2! + z^3/3! + ……….
In particular for the base, a = a^1 = 1+1 + 1/2! + 1/3! + ……….One might find it interesting to try, by modern limiting arguments, to justify this derivation.
Pardon me, I realize I have deviated from the purpose of this thread, so I will not post further in this different vein.
we know that a^0 = 1, hence, since small changes in the argument yield small changes in the output which are approximately linear, (the fundamental principle of the differential calculus), if w is very small, “infinitely small”, then a^w is essentially equal to 1 + kw, where k the derivative of the exponential function at 0. I will simplify by taking the base of the exponential function a, to be so that derivative is 1, (I am taking a = e), hence for w infinitely small we have a^w = 1+w.
Now let z be a finite quantity, and n an infinitely large integer, so that w = z/n is infinitely small.
Then a^z = a^[(z/n)(n)] = [a^w]^n = (1+w)^n = (1 + (nw/n))^n = (1+z/n)^n
= (by the binomial theorem) 1 + z + (z^2/2!)[n(n-1)/n^2] + (z^3/3!)[n(n-1)(n-2)/n^3] + ………
But since n is infinitely large, n/(n-1) = n/(n-2) = 1, and this gives:
a^z = 1+ z + z^2/2! + z^3/3! + ……….
In particular for the base, a = a^1 = 1+1 + 1/2! + 1/3! + ……….One might find it interesting to try, by modern limiting arguments, to justify this derivation.
Pardon me, I realize I have deviated from the purpose of this thread, so I will not post further in this different vein.