Tension between two objects moving at constant velocity

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The discussion focuses on calculating the tension in the coupling between a railway engine and trucks under different conditions. When the train accelerates at 0.020 m/s², the tension is calculated to be 1.6 kN. However, when the train moves at constant velocity, the tension is zero due to the absence of acceleration. Participants clarify that for constant velocity, the force is zero, aligning with the equation F = ma. The key takeaway is that tension arises only when there is acceleration; otherwise, it is nonexistent.
moenste
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Homework Statement


A railway engine of mass 100 tonnes is attached to a line of trucks of total mass 80 tonnes. Assuming there is no resistance to motion, find the tension in the coupling between the engine and the leading truck when the train: (a) has an acceleration of 0.020 ms-2, (b) is moving at constant velocity.

Answers:
(a) 1.6 kN, (b) zero

Homework Equations


F = ma
Weight = mg

The Attempt at a Solution


(a) Ftotal = (100+80)*103 * 0.02 = 3600 N
Fengine = 100*103 * 0.02 = 2000 N
T = 3600 - 2000 = 1600 N

(b) Constant velocity = 0 acceleration. But I don't quite understand why there is 0 tension. Any tips? Thank you.
 
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What else would you expect?
Zero acceleration is just a special case for F=ma, if acceleration is zero the force is zero as well.

You can simplify the calculation for (a) by the way, there is no need to consider the engine mass.
 
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mfb said:
What else would you expect?
Zero acceleration is just a special case for F=ma, if acceleration is zero the force is zero as well.

You can simplify the calculation for (a) by the way, there is no need to consider the engine mass.
Thank you. So in general, just calculate the F of the attached part (in this case the trucks) and it would be the tension: F = 80*103 * 0.02 = 1600 N. And if a = 0 then F = 80*103 * 0 = 0. I got you words correctly?
 
In general, you have to see what pulls what in which way.
In this case: yes, right.
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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