Terrifying question about polynomial in analysis

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the assertion from a textbook that a non-constant analytic polynomial cannot be real-valued due to the violation of the Cauchy-Riemann equations. The example provided illustrates that if the polynomial is expressed as \( f(z) = P_n(z) = u(x,y) + iv(x,y) \) with \( v(x,y) = 0 \), the partial derivatives of \( u \) and \( v \) lead to inconsistencies. Specifically, the conditions set by the Cauchy-Riemann equations cannot be satisfied, confirming that non-constant analytic polynomials must have non-real components.

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eileen6a
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the textbook says that:
"a non-constant analytic polynomial cannot be real-valued, for then both the partial derivative with respect to x and y would be real and the cauchyriemann equation cannot be satisfied."
why??there's no explanation in the book and this sentence is written as an example.
help.
 
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Well let's see what we got:

[tex] \begin{aligned}<br /> f(z)&=P_n(z)=u(x,y)+iv(x,y) \\<br /> &=u(x,y)+i0\\<br /> &\neq k<br /> \end{aligned}[/tex]

So then:

[tex]\begin{aligned}<br /> \frac{\partial u}{\partial x}&=g(x,y) &\quad \frac{\partial u}{\partial y}&=h(x,y)\\<br /> \frac{\partial v}{\partial x}&=0 &\quad \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}&=0<br /> \end{aligned}[/tex]

. . . so if f(z) is not equal to k (a constant) . . . then what?
 
thanks you must be a genius
 

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