The difference between diamagnetism and paramagnetism?

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SUMMARY

The discussion clarifies the distinctions between diamagnetism and paramagnetism, emphasizing that all materials exhibit diamagnetism due to the presence of orbital current loops. Diamagnetic materials align their dipoles to oppose an external magnetic field, as dictated by Lenz's law. In contrast, paramagnetic materials possess unpaired electron spins that create a net magnetic moment, allowing them to align with an applied magnetic field. The confusion arises from the terminology used to describe magnetic moments in diamagnetic atoms, which do not exhibit a net magnetic moment but still respond to external fields.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of atomic structure and electron configurations
  • Familiarity with magnetic dipole moments
  • Knowledge of Lenz's law and its implications in magnetism
  • Basic principles of magnetic susceptibility
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the concept of magnetic dipole moments in detail
  • Study the differences between diamagnetic and paramagnetic materials
  • Explore the role of unpaired electron spins in magnetism
  • Investigate how to measure magnetic susceptibility and apply corrections for diamagnetism
USEFUL FOR

Students preparing for exams in physics, particularly those focusing on magnetism, as well as educators and researchers interested in the fundamental principles of magnetic materials.

jeebs
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Hi,
I am struggling to see the difference in the origins of diamagnetism and paramagnetism.

My understanding of things is that the electrons orbitting an atom constitute a tiny circular current loop, which corresponds to a magnetic dipole moment pointing normal to the plane of that loop.

When a magnetic field is applied, apparently a diamagnetic material will allow its dipoles to align themselves such that they oppose the applied field, as a consequence of Lenz's law.

However, from what I can gather, paramagnetism also results from tiny atomic current loops that create a magnetic dipole moment, but these do not oppose the field and I do not know why.

The Hyperphysics website states that:
"All materials are inherently diamagnetic, but if the atoms have some net magnetic moment as in paramagnetic materials, or if there is long-range ordering of atomic magnetic moments as in ferromagnetic materials, these stronger effects are always dominant."

This particularly confuses me, because surely a diamagnetic atom has some net magnetic moment too, or else what the hell is it aligning with the applied field? Surely an atom with no net magnetic moment will have no reaction whatsoever to an applied field?

I'd really appreciate a swift answer to this because my magnetism exam is tomorrow.

Thanks.
 
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jeebs said:
This particularly confuses me, because surely a diamagnetic atom has some net magnetic moment too, or else what the hell is it aligning with the applied field?
The orbital current loops. Diamagnetism is present in all atoms. Paramagnetism arises in atoms with unpaired spins which not all atoms or have. People who measure paramagnetic susceptibilities routinely apply diamagnetic corrections found in tables to separate the paramagnetic contribution from the unavoidable diamagnetic contribution.
 
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"If the atoms have some net magnetic moment"
I think that is just loose language in the text. I think they must mean something like 'intrinsic' instead of 'net'.
 
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