The Newtonian equation, F=ma is replaced in relativity (relativistic dynamics) by F = dp/dt, where p is momentum. So force is the rate of change of momentum with respect to time.
F=dp/dt is valid in Newtonian mechanics as well, so it's valid in both relativistic and Newtonian mechanics.
To anyone who remembers their calculus, this should be a sufficient explanation. I suspect that many PF readers who ask this question don't remember (or haven't yet had) calculus, so the explanation doesn't always seem to "get through" unfortunately..
I'll go through the math in more detail, but understanding the technical points does require one to know/remember their calculus - at least the way I am going to present it. If we start with p = m*v, which is universally true both in relativistic and Newtonian mechanics, we next apply the chain rule for derivatives to simplify the expression. Thus we write dp/dt = (dm/dt)*v + m (dv/dt). When m is constant, dm/dt is zero, the first term disappears, and dp/dt reduces to f = m dv/dt = ma. In relativistic dynamics, p = ##\gamma m v##, so ##dp/dt = (d \gamma/dt) m v + \gamma (dm/dt) v + \gamma m (dv/dt)##, where ##\gamma = 1/\sqrt{1-(v/c)^2)}##