The Starship Enterprise (variable acceleration problem) part II

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The discussion centers on a mathematical error in solving a variable acceleration problem related to the Starship Enterprise. The user expresses frustration over a potential mistake made in their calculations, specifically regarding the integration of an exponential function. A key correction is provided, highlighting that the user incorrectly applied the exponential function's properties, leading to an erroneous conclusion. The correct approach involves evaluating the exponential function at the limits of integration and subtracting the results. The user acknowledges the mistake and expresses hope to avoid similar errors in the future.
frankR
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Okay what am I doing wrong? This is the way I've been doing math for the last two years. This is annoying me. Unless I've been doing everything wrong the last two years, I feel this is correct. I realize it's most likely wrong. Someone please explain to me what I am doing wrong and more important why.

F = -be^(-a*v) = m dv/dt, a and b are constants.

m [inte]vov e^(a*v) dv = -b [inte]to=0t dt

m/a e^(a(v - vo)) = -b*t

ln[e^(a(v - vo))] = ln[-abt/m]

a(v - vo) = ln[-abt/m]

v(t) = 1/a ln[-abt/m] + vo

dx/dt = v(t) = 1/a ln[-abt/m] + vo

[inte]xo=ox dx = [inte]to=ot1/a ln[-abt/m] + vodt

x(t) = t/a[ln(-a*b*t/m) + a*vo -1]
 
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Originally posted by frankR
m [inte]vov e^(a*v) dv = -b [inte]to=0t dt

m/a e^(a(v - vo)) = -b*t

Your mistake is in the last line here. When you do the integral, you have to evaluate exp(av) at v and at v0 and subtract, to get:

exp(av)-exp(av0).

This does not equal:

exp(a(v-v0)),

which is what you have. Incidentally, this is the same basic mistake that I pointed out in "Part I" of this problem, except there you did it with the inverse function (natural log), when you used the invalid rule:

ln(a+b)=ln(a)+ln(b).
 
m/a e^(a*v)|vov = -b*t

m/a(e^(a*v) - e^(a*vo) = -b*t

Okay now that makes sense.

Thanks.

Edit: Hopefully I won't make that mistake again.
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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