- #1
dyn
- 773
- 61
I have read that the integral of d3x ∇(ψ*ψ) is zero because the total derivative vanishes if ψ is normalizable.
Does this mean that the integral of d3x ∇(ψ*ψ) is ψ*ψ evaluated at the limits where ψ is zero ?
Thanks
Does this mean that the integral of d3x ∇(ψ*ψ) is ψ*ψ evaluated at the limits where ψ is zero ?
Thanks