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## Main Question or Discussion Point

I have read that the integral of d

Does this mean that the integral of d

Thanks

^{3}x ∇(ψ^{*}ψ) is zero because the total derivative vanishes if ψ is normalizable.Does this mean that the integral of d

^{3}x ∇(ψ^{*}ψ) is ψ^{*}ψ evaluated at the limits where ψ is zero ?Thanks