The total travel time along a frictionless path?

In summary, the object moves from being at rest in the higher position A (xA,yA) to the lower position B (xB,yB) due to a uniform gravitational field. There is no friction at all.
  • #1
jeebs
325
4
Hi,
I have this problem about an object moving along a track due to a uniform gravitational field. It moves from being at rest in the higher position A (xA,yA) to the lower position B (xB,yB). There is no friction at all. What I am supposed to be doing is showing that the total time from A to B is given by:

[tex] t_t_o_t = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2g}}\int dt \sqrt{\frac{(dx/dt)^2 + (dy/dt)^2}{y}}[/tex]
where the limits of the integral are given as between (xA,yA) and (xB,yB).

The limits I do not quite understand, because surely they should really be times rather than positions if we are integrating with respect to time?

Anyway, what I have attempted is this:
From Newton's equation of motion, v2 = u2 + 2as, if we set initial velocity u = 0, gravitational acceleration a = g and vertical displacement s = y, then we have an expression for the object's final velocity, [tex]v = \sqrt{2gy}[/tex].

Also, I said that the instantaneous velocity will be given by [tex] v_i = \sqrt{(dx/dt)^2 + (dy/dt)^2} [/tex].

Since these two things match the denominator and numerator in the integrand respectively, they must be important. Clearly vi/v = 0 at time t=0 and position A, and increases to vi/v = 1 at time t=ttot and position B.


This is where I start to hit trouble though. I'm not really sure what to make of these spatial limits and I can't see the way forward. One thing I have tried is to say that

[tex] (\sqrt{(dx/dt)^2 + (dy/dt)^2})dt = \sqrt{dt^2(dx/dt)^2 + dt^2(dy/dt)^2} = \sqrt{(dx)^2 + (dy)^2} = dy\sqrt{(dx/dy) + 1}[/tex]

but when I proceed with the integral integrating with respect to y from there, I end up with a quantity that does not have dimensions of time.

Can anyone steer me in the right direction?
Many thanks to those who try.
 
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  • #2
What is the direction of the instantaneous velocity

[tex]v_i[/tex]

and compare with your final velocity direction

[tex]v[/tex]

If the dt outside the square root is moved inside the square root, as you have shown, what are the units of the integrand? Then determine the units of

[tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{2g}}[/tex]

You should find the units of the expression is time.
 
  • #3
Start out with ds=vdt. From this it follows that [itex]t=\int \frac{ds}{v} [/itex]. You know that [itex]ds=\sqrt{dx^2+dy^2}[/itex] which you can rewrite to something in terms of dt as you have already shown in your last line of equations. Now you just have to calculate v. Hint: use conservation of energy.
 
  • #4
Cyosis said:
Start out with ds=vdt. From this it follows that [itex]t=\int \frac{ds}{v} [/itex]. You know that [itex]ds=\sqrt{dx^2+dy^2}[/itex] which you can rewrite to something in terms of dt as you have already shown in your last line of equations. Now you just have to calculate v. Hint: use conservation of energy.

Thanks guys.

What I've tried now is this:-
In the equation ds = vdt, this velocity is not a final or initial velocity as are used in Newton's equations of motion, it is some instantaneous velocity v=v(t) = v(y).

Also, kinetic energy Ek = 0.5mv2 and potential energy Ep = -mgy.

Potential energy is at a maximum of zero when the object is at its highest, and as it falls along its path it becomes more negative. At t=0, velocity is also 0, so that the sum of the kinetic and potential energies is zero, ie. Ek + Ep = 0, which is a constant.

This means that at some downwards displacement y, we have 0.5mv2 - mgy = 0 at all times. This leads directly to v=(2gy)1/2, which then slots into my final expression for t=ttot.

Am I justified in saying this?
 
  • #5


I would approach this problem by first understanding the physical principles at play. In this case, we have an object moving along a track due to a uniform gravitational field, with no friction. This means that the only forces acting on the object are gravity and normal force, which is perpendicular to the surface of the track.

To solve for the total travel time, we need to consider the object's motion in both the x and y directions. In the x direction, the object is not accelerating, so the velocity remains constant. In the y direction, the object is accelerating due to gravity, and its velocity changes over time.

Using the equations of motion, we can express the velocity in the y direction as v_y = v_i + at, where v_i is the initial velocity and a is the acceleration due to gravity. Since we know that v_i = 0 and a = g, we can simplify this to v_y = gt.

Now, to find the total travel time, we need to integrate this velocity over time. This is where the limits of the integral come into play. The limits are given as positions (xA,yA) and (xB,yB) because we are considering the object's motion from point A to point B. We can use the equation for displacement, s = ut + 1/2at^2, to express the y position as a function of time.

Substituting v_y = gt into this equation, we get y = 1/2gt^2. This allows us to express the time t in terms of y, which we can then substitute into our integral.

The integral now becomes t_t_o_t = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2g}}\int dt \sqrt{\frac{(dx/dt)^2 + (dy/dt)^2}{y}} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2g}}\int \frac{1}{\sqrt{g}} \sqrt{dx^2 + dy^2} = \frac{1}{g}\int \sqrt{dx^2 + dy^2}

This integral represents the total distance traveled by the object from A to B, and dividing it by the constant acceleration g gives us the total time.

In summary, the limits of the integral represent the start and end points of the object's motion, and integrating the velocity over time gives us the total distance traveled. I would
 

1. What is a frictionless path?

A frictionless path is a theoretical concept in physics that describes a path or trajectory in which there is no resistance or friction present. This means that there are no forces acting against the motion of an object, allowing it to move without any external interference.

2. How is the total travel time calculated along a frictionless path?

The total travel time along a frictionless path is calculated by dividing the distance traveled by the velocity of the object. This is based on the principle of uniform motion, where the velocity remains constant throughout the entire journey.

3. Can the total travel time along a frictionless path ever be zero?

No, the total travel time along a frictionless path can never be zero. This is because even in a frictionless environment, there is still a distance that needs to be covered by the object, which will always take some amount of time to do so.

4. How does the absence of friction affect the total travel time?

The absence of friction has a significant impact on the total travel time along a frictionless path. Without friction, there is no force acting against the motion of an object, allowing it to move more efficiently and reach its destination faster.

5. Are there any real-life examples of a frictionless path?

While a true frictionless path does not exist in the real world, there are some situations where the effects of friction can be reduced or eliminated. For example, satellites in outer space experience very little friction, allowing them to travel at high speeds for extended periods of time.

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