The_owner's question at Yahoo Answers (Convergence of an integral)

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around determining the convergence of a specific integral, $\displaystyle\int_0^{\infty}\dfrac{e^x}{e^{2x}+3}\;dx$. Participants explore various methods and substitutions to analyze the integral's behavior, touching on related integrals and general principles of convergence.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents the integral and provides a link to the original question on Yahoo Answers.
  • Another participant applies a substitution $t=e^x$ to transform the integral into a more manageable form, suggesting that it can be analyzed using known convergence criteria.
  • A third participant elaborates on the substitution and computes the integral explicitly, concluding that it converges to $\frac{\pi \, \sqrt{3}}{9}$.
  • Another participant agrees that the integral is convergent but emphasizes that the original question is more general, comparing it to a different integral that poses similar challenges regarding convergence.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

While some participants assert that the integral is convergent, there is a recognition that the original problem's scope is broader and may involve more complex integrals. The discussion does not reach a consensus on the implications of this broader context.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the convergence of the integral may depend on specific methods and comparisons to other integrals, indicating that the analysis could vary based on the approach taken.

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Hello the_owner,

Your integral is $\displaystyle\int_0^{\infty}\dfrac{e^x}{e^{2x}+3}\;dx$. Using the substitution $t=e^x$ we get $$\displaystyle\int_0^{\infty}\dfrac{e^x}{e^{2x}+3}\;dx=\displaystyle\int_1^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{t^2+3}\;dt$$ But $$\displaystyle\lim_{t\to \infty}\left(\dfrac{1}{t^2+1}:\dfrac{1}{t^2}\right)=1\neq 0$$ According to a well-known criterion, the given integral is convergent if and only if $\displaystyle\int_1^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{t^2}\;dt$ is convergent and this one is convergent (again using a well-known theorem), so the given integral is convergent.
 
[math]\displaystyle \begin{align*} \int_0^{\infty}{\frac{e^x}{e^{2x} + 3}\,dx} = \int_0^{\infty}{\frac{e^x}{ \left( e^x \right) ^2 + 3 }\,dx} \end{align*}[/math]

Let [math]\displaystyle \begin{align*} u = e^x \implies du = e^x\,dx \end{align*}[/math] and note that [math]\displaystyle \begin{align*} u(0) = 1 \end{align*}[/math] and [math]\displaystyle \begin{align*} u \to \infty \end{align*}[/math] as [math]\displaystyle \begin{align*} x \to \infty \end{align*}[/math], then the integral becomes...

[math]\displaystyle \begin{align*} \int_0^{\infty}{\frac{e^x}{\left( e^x \right) ^2 + 3} \, dx} &= \int_1^{\infty}{\frac{1}{u^2 + 3}\,du} \\ &= \lim_{\epsilon \to \infty} \left[ \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \arctan{\left( \frac{u}{\sqrt{3}} \right)} \right]_1^{\epsilon} \\ &= \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\left\{ \left[ \lim_{ \epsilon \to \infty} \arctan{\left( \frac{\epsilon}{\sqrt{3}} \right) } \right] - \arctan{\left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \right) } \right\} \\ &= \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \left( \frac{\pi}{2} - \frac{\pi}{6} \right) \\ &= \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \left( \frac{\pi}{3} \right) \\ &= \frac{\pi \, \sqrt{3}}{9} \end{align*}[/math]

The integral is obviously convergent...
 
Prove It said:
The integral is obviously convergent...

Right, but the problem only asks for the convergence, and this cuestion is more general. For example, to study the convergence of $$\displaystyle\int_1^{\infty}\dfrac{x^3+1}{x^5+11x^4+x^3+\pi x^2+(\log 2)x+\sqrt[3]{2}}\;dx$$ has exactly the same difficulty that to study the convergence of $$\displaystyle\int_1^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{t^2+3} \;dt$$ Another thing, is to compute them.
 

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