Marcin
- 41
- 2
I know :) (L2-L1)=m*λ; It's in the picture.DrChinese said:The distance difference (L1-L2) is going to be an integer multiple proportional to the wavelength of the particle.
I agree. That's why I don't want to prove that it went through the specific slit. Interference disproves it.DrChinese said:Of course, you and I know intuitively already that can't be true. (Precisely because there is interference, the particle could not have traversed a specific slit.)
I want to check whether the interference pattern requires the contribution of both slits to the probability wave function after the assumed time and not earlier. I can see that L2 in the assumed inequality is misleading.DrChinese said:I think your question then is actually: why not?
Good to know!DrChinese said:1. You would need to know the time of emission of the particle quite accurately. (PS That is no piece of cake. With a laser source, how would you even know how many photons were emitted?)
2. You would need to know the time the particle hit the detector screen quite accurately.
I think that many reproducible results of travel time between L1 and L2 would disprove my assumption and that would be the end of discussion for me. Still, as I've said, I don't want to prove that a specific slit was traversed.DrChinese said:3. You would need to exclude all detections where the travel time was somewhere between L1 and L2; since the result would not indicate unambiguously which slit was traversed.
I'm grateful for all the details, they show me the difficulty of this experiment. Thank you.DrChinese said:A common 405 nm laser has a frequency of 740228291 MHz, and that requires very high timing resolution. If I did my arithmetic correctly, such a photon travels one wavelength in on the order of 1.3 * 10^-15 seconds (1.3 femtoseconds). Not sure what's out there that could provide such resolution in this particular type of experiment, perhaps others can weigh in.