Transformation of k_y in the wave 4-vector

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SUMMARY

The transformation of the wave 4-vector, specifically the component k_y, is analyzed under the influence of relativistically induced optical anisotropy. The initial assumption that the wave vector and phase velocity align in all inertial frames is incorrect, leading to discrepancies in the transformation equations. The correct formulation for the phase of plane waves is given by Φ = k·r - k·u/c, which accounts for the anisotropic effects. This conclusion is supported by the paper "Is the phase of plane waves a frame-independent quantity?" published in EPL.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of wave 4-vectors and their components
  • Familiarity with Lorentz transformations and relativistic effects
  • Knowledge of phase velocity and its implications in wave mechanics
  • Basic concepts of optical anisotropy in physics
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  • Study the implications of relativistically induced optical anisotropy in wave propagation
  • Review the paper "Is the phase of plane waves a frame-independent quantity?" for detailed analysis
  • Explore the mathematical derivation of Lorentz transformations in wave mechanics
  • Investigate the relationship between wave vectors and phase velocities in different inertial frames
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jason12345
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I'm checking how k_y in the wave 4-vector transforms, but not getting what I expect:

The wave 4-vector is defined as [tex](\omega/c,\ \textbf{k} )[/tex] where [tex]\textbf{k} = 2\pi/ \boldsymbol{\lambda},\ \textbf{u}[/tex] is the velocity of propagation of the plane wave

Let s' travel, as usual, along the x-axis of s with velocity v, and k make an angle theta wrt x axis.

[tex]\omega'\ =\ \gamma\omega(1-v/u\ \cos\theta),\ u'_{y'} = u_{y}/\gamma (1-vu_x/c^2)[/tex] are standard results and substituting into

[tex]k'_{y'} = 2 \pi/\lambda'_{ x'}[/tex]

[tex]= \omega'/ u'_{y'}[/tex]

[tex]= \gamma\omega(1-v/u\ \cos\theta)\gamma (1-vu_x/c^2)/u_{y}[/tex]

[tex]= \omega/u_{y}\gamma^2(1-vu_{x}/u^2)(1-vu_x/c^2)[/tex]

[tex]= k_{y}\gamma^2(1-vu_{x}/u^2)(1-vu_x/c^2)[/tex]

Since [tex]k_{y}=k'_{y'}[/tex] then

[tex](1-vu_{x}/u^2)(1-vu_x/c^2) = 1 - v^2/c^2[/tex]

which isn't generally true.

Where have I gone wrong in my working?

Thanks in advance.
 
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I've found where I've gone wrong. I assumed that the wave vector and phase velocity are pointing in the same direction in all frames, when in fact they don't, and the effect is called "relativistically induced optical anisotropy". It means that the wave 4 vector in its usual form is a 4 vector and the phase is a Lorentz scalar only for a phase velocity equal to c, as outlined in this paper:

Is the phase of plane waves a frame-independent quantity?

The invariance of the phase of plane waves among inertial frames is investigated in some details. The reason that eventually led the author of a recent EPL letter [EPL \textbf{79}, 1006 (2007)] to a spurious conclusion of the non-invariance of the phase of waves has been identified -- it is the ignorance of the effect of relativistically-induced optical anisotropy in the analysis of the problem. It is argued that the Lorentz-invariant expression for the phase of waves should be taken in the form $\Phi=\mathbf{k\cdot r}-\mathbf{k\cdot u}/c$, instead of the widely-used expression $\Phi=\mathbf{k\cdot r}-\omega t$ which has a limited validity.

http://arxiv.org/abs/0801.3149

Had anyone come across this effect before?

Regards
 

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