Triangle inequality implies nonnegative scalar multiple

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The discussion centers on whether the triangle inequality in a complex inner product space implies that a set of vectors are non-negative scalar multiples of a non-zero vector. The original poster is uncertain about the validity of this claim and is exploring proof methods, particularly through induction. Participants confirm that the statement holds true in finite-dimensional spaces and relate it to properties of Hilbert spaces and the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality. They also emphasize that equality in the triangle inequality indicates specific relationships between the vectors involved. The conclusion is that the dimensionality of the complex vector space does not affect the validity of the claim.
Bipolarity
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I'm not really sure if this is true, which is why I want your opinion. I have been trying to prove it, but it will help me a lot if someone can confirm this.

Let ## v_{1}, v_{2} ... v_{n} ## be vectors in a complex inner product space ##V##. Suppose that ## | v_{1} + v_{2} +...+ v_{n}| = |v_{1}| + |v_{2}| +...+ |v_{n}| ##. Then is it necessarily the case that ##v_{1},v_{2}...v_{n}## are all non-negative scalar multiples of some nonzero vector ##v## ?

It seems much easier to prove for a real inner product space, but I'm not even sure if this is true for complex inner product spaces. I'm trying an induction, first using the simple case where ## n = 2 ## but I can't seem to prove that the scaling factor must be a non-negative real number.

BiP
 
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I don't have a proof handy but I can confirm that it is at least true if the space is finite-dimensional.
The reason is that ##\mathbb{C}^n## is a Hilbert Space (inner product space), every Hilbert Space is a Banach Space (normed space) using the norm derived from the inner product, and part of the definition of a norm is that it must obey the triangle inequality.

To complete the argument, note that an n-dimensional vector space over ##\mathbb{C}## is isomorphic to ##\mathbb{C}^n##.

Actually, now I think about it, the usual proof of that isomorphism covers only the vector space operations, not the norm, so there's still something additional to prove there: that if ##\phi## is the isomorphism then ##\|\phi(v)\|=\|v\|##. I suppose that in turn comes down to whether the inner product on a finite-dimensional complex vector space is unique (ie can there be more than one inner product function?).
 
andrewkirk said:
(ie can there be more than one inner product function?).
Every complex matrix ## A = (a_{ij}) ## defines a sesquilinear form ## <v,w> = ∑_{i,j} a_{i,j} \bar{v_i} w_j ## which is hermitian iff ##A## is.

As far as I could see the proof for the statement in the OP uses just the properties of a sesquilinear form and the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality and does not require a finite dimensional vector space.
 
Picking up on fresh_42's ref to the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality, we can see from this proof of the triangle inequality for a complex inner product space, that equality holds only if the ##\leq## signs in the fourth and fifth lines become equalities. Making the first of those an equality forces ##\langle x,y\rangle## to be real and non-negative and making the second one an equality forces ##x## to be a scalar multiple of ##y##. The dimensionality of the complex vector space does not matter.
 
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