Trigonometric Integration / relationship between f(cosx) and f(sinx)

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the equality of the integrals ∫f(sin(x))dx and ∫f(cos(x))dx over the interval [0, π/2] for a well-behaved function f. Participants emphasize the relationship between the integrals through substitution and properties of sine and cosine. Key insights include using the substitution x = t - u to demonstrate that the variable of integration is a dummy variable, allowing for flexibility in notation without affecting the integral's value. This leads to the conclusion that the two integrals are indeed equal.

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  • Understanding of definite integrals and their properties
  • Familiarity with trigonometric functions, specifically sine and cosine
  • Knowledge of substitution methods in integration
  • Basic grasp of dummy variables in calculus
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Zatman
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Homework Statement



Show that:

∫f(sin(x))dx = ∫f(cos(x))dx

where each integral is over the limits [0, \pi/2], for a 'well behaved' function f.

2. The attempt at a solution

I have tried relating sin(x) and cos(x) and somehow rearrange one of the integrals to look like the other. Since:

sin(x) = cos(x-\pi/2)

I can substitute this into the LHS integral and I am sure this is the correct way to start. It is at this point where I cannot think of any way of moving forward.

Any help would be appreciated.
 
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You are heading the right way. I'll give you two tips. The first is, how are \displaystyle \int_{0}^{t} f(x)\,dx and \displaystyle \int_{0}^{t} f(t-x)\,dx related?

The second tip is, think about the fundamental properties of sine and cosine. There is one particular property that will help you.
 
Thank you for you reply Millennial.

Using the property that cos(-x) = cos(x) I have got:

int[f(sinx)]dx = int[f(cos(x-\pi/2))] = int[f(cos(\pi/2-x))]

Looking at your first tip one would assume that the relation is that they are equal (since that yields the required result), which is obvious from a sketch of the graphs of cos(x) and cos(\pi/2-x). But I am not sure how you would derive this more formally?
 
Zatman said:
But I am not sure how you would derive this more formally?
By a change of variable. In the integral of f(t-x).dx, substitute x = t - u wherever x occurs (including the bounds).
 
Sorry but I am still confused:

I = int(0 to t)[f(t-x)]dx

let u = t - x
then du = -dx
limits become t to 0

I = -int(t to 0)[f(u)]du
I = int(0 to t)[f(u)]du

Now what? If I put x back in I just get what I started with.
 
Zatman said:
I = int(0 to t)[f(u)]du
Now what? If I put x back in I just get what I started with.
The variable of integration is a 'dummy' variable. You can change it to anything you like so long as you do it consistently. If I = int(0 to t)[f(u)]du then it must also be true that I = int(0 to t)[f(x)]dx.
 
I see, the value of the integral depends only on the limits and the form of the integrand.

Thank you for your help haruspex and Millennial. :)
 

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