Trigonometry, Prove the Identity and more

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Homework Statement



Prove the identity
11. 1 - co5xcos3x - sin5xsin3x = 2sin^2x

50. ln |secx + tanx| = -ln |secx - tanx|

52. The following equation occurs in the study of mechanics:
[tex]\sin\theta = \frac{I_1\cos\phi}{\sqrt{(I_1\cos\phi)^2 + (I_2\sin\phi)^2}}[/tex]. It can happen that [tex]I_1 = I_2[/tex]. Assuming that this happens, simplify the equation.

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



11. Idk what I'm doing wrong

50. GRRR!

53. Can I make this assumption that [tex]\phi = 45^\circ[/tex] and that [tex]\theta = 45^\circ[/tex]?
 
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For 50

ln(secx + tanx) = -ln(secx - tanx)
ln(secx + tanx) = ln(1 / (secx - tanx))
secx + tanx = 1 / (secx - tanx)

Cross multiply, and you're good.
 
11) You should know the identity [tex]1-cos(2 \phi) = 2 sin^2 (\phi)[/tex], that should help.
 
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bel said:
11) You should know the identity [tex]1-cos(2 \phi) = 2 sin^2 (\phi)[/tex], that should help.
lol omg ... i see it now, I'm so exhausted! thanks
 
So you'd know, 11 is almost done, in case you didn't bother to write the whole computation, if you have already made it. Just cut 1 from both sides of the equation, multiply the result by -1 and then use the fact that sin^2 +cos^2 =1.
 
nicktacik said:
For 50

ln(secx + tanx) = -ln(secx - tanx)
ln(secx + tanx) = ln(1 / (secx - tanx))
secx + tanx = 1 / (secx - tanx)

Cross multiply, and you're good.
oh wow, very nice. thank you! i didn't even think about taking the e of both sides.

anyone for 53? can i make that assumption or did i screw up? i did it about 3x.
 
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dextercioby said:
You wrote 52 but i think you meant 53. You have

[tex]I_{1}^{2}\cos^{4}\theta=I_{2}^{2}\sin^{4}\theta[/tex]

You can't take sqrt like that.
how did you get the sin/cos to the 4th power?

idk if my handwriting is clear, but [tex]\sin\theta = \frac{I_1\cos\phi}{\sqrt{(I_1\cos\phi)^2 + (I_2\sin\phi)^2}}[/tex]
 
from where you got these questions ;P?
thanks.
 
rootX said:
from where you got these questions ;P?
thanks.
do you like them?

it's from Algebra and Trigonometry, Beecher (Calc-prep book) ... i love it! i didn't learn Trigonometry properly b/c i took it in a 3-week mini-mester ... i love Math now so I'm studying harddd
 
dextercioby said:
Okay. Raise to the second power and do all multiplications. What do you get ?
ok I'm getting the same answer ... i even substituted b/c the damn I's were making me dizzy

check my work up to this point please ... i can't think straight anymore

[tex]\sin\theta = \frac{I_1\cos\phi}{\sqrt{(I_1\cos\phi)^2 + (I_2\sin\phi)^2}}[/tex]

squaring both sides ...

[tex]\sin^2\theta = \frac{I_1^2\cos^2\phi}{I_1^2\cos^2\phi + I_2^2\sin^2\phi}[/tex]

is my denominator right, or did i screw it up?
 
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rocophysics said:
do you like them?

it's from Algebra and Trigonometry, Beecher (Calc-prep book) ... i love it! i didn't learn Trigonometry properly b/c i took it in a 3-week mini-mester ... i love Math now so I'm studying harddd

Thanks you. :smile:
Yes I do. Just finished the first one. :biggrin:

wow, I almost missed these ones!
I only did examples from 6.3, and nothing exciting was there, so I moved to the next exercise also because I had less time that day, and was tired from the work. I am on the last chapter of that book.

I am doing this because I thought I need to brush up my basic skills before I start my first year of university(in EE). In calculus, I got to integration by parts, and then got reluctant.
 
for #50:
can I just take derivatives of both sides, and then prove it?
that way it takes only two steps to solve all the problem
 
dextercioby said:
It's okay so far. Now cross multiply.
[tex]\sin^2\theta I_1^2\cos^2\phi + \sin^2\theta I_2^2\sin^2\phi = I_1^2\cos^2\phi[/tex]

factoring

[tex]I_1^2\cos^2\phi(\sin^2\theta-1) = -I_2^2 \sin^2\theta\sin^2\phi<br /> <br /> (\sin^2\theta-1) = -\cos^2\theta[/tex]

[tex]I_1^2\cos^2\phi = \frac{-I_2^2\sin^2\theta\sin^2\phi}{-\cos^2\theta}[/tex]

right so far?
 
rootX said:
for #50:
can I just take derivatives of both sides, and then prove it?
that way it takes only two steps to solve all the problem

Unfortunately [tex]f_{1}'(x)=f_{2}'(x) \nRightarrow f_{1}(x)=f_{2}(x)[/tex].

EDIT: At Rocophysics. Yes. Now do you see the 4-th powers coming up ? You have obtained what i had already written b4.EDIT at EDIT: OOOps, i didn't see there were 2 angles, theta and phi. Then disregard my comments about the 4-th power.
 
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rootX said:
for #50:
can I just take derivatives of both sides, and then prove it?
that way it takes only two steps to solve all the problem
WTF! two steps? lol ...
 
rootX said:
Thanks you. :smile:
Yes I do. Just finished the first one. :biggrin:

wow, I almost missed these ones!
i love their synthesis problems, they're pretty good
 
dextercioby said:
EDIT at EDIT: OOOps, i didn't see there were 2 angles, theta and phi. Then disregard my comments about the 4-th power.
lol! i told you that on post #8, is all good! this is good latex practice

EDIT ... oops i didn't say it, i just made it neater to show there were 2 angles, argh! my fault.
 
how about this one:
[tex]\frac{1}{{sin\left( t\right) }^{2}}=\frac{{I}_{2}^{2}\,{tan\left( p\right) }^{2}}{{I}_{1}^{2}}+1[/tex]
 
take 1 to the left side, and this further simplifies the relationship :D

so cot(t) = [I2/I1]tan(p)
 
rootX said:
for #50:
can I just take derivatives of both sides, and then prove it?
that way it takes only two steps to solve all the problem

Nope, otherwise you could prove that 1=2.
 
rootX said:
how about this one:
[tex]\frac{1}{{sin\left( t\right) }^{2}}=\frac{{I}_{2}^{2}\,{tan\left( p\right) }^{2}}{{I}_{1}^{2}}+1[/tex]
is it okay to take the square root of both sides ...

[tex]I_1^2\cos^2\phi = \frac{I_2^2\sin^2\phi\sin^2\theta}{\cos^2\theta}[/tex]

then it would become

[tex]\frac{I_1\cos\phi}{\sin\phi} = \frac{I_2\sin\theta}{\cos\theta}[/tex]

i'm looking over yours ...
 
it gives the same answer:
cot(t) = [I2/I1]tan(p)
 
For 53, just substitute [tex]I_2 = I_1[/tex], then simplify. Factor the [tex]I_1^2[/tex] in the denominator... then take the square root of [tex]I_1^2[/tex], you have sin^2 + cos^2 in the denominator... you can simplify...
 
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learningphysics said:
For 53, just substitute [tex]I_2 = I_1[/tex], then simplify. Factor the [tex]I_1^2[/tex] in the denominator... then take the square root of [tex]I_1^2[/tex], you have sin^2 + cos^2 in the denominator... you can simplify...

it says this only true sometimes...not always
 
learningphysics said:
The question says, "assuming that this happens, simplify the equation"

oh yes, it sounds correct
 
rocophysics said:
oh wow, very nice. thank you! i didn't even think about taking the e of both sides.

Be sure to begin with the identity and work towards the result you're trying to prove... ie: begin with sec^2x - tan^2x = 1 (don't know if you need to prove this also... it's a simple proof).