True or false problem for double differentiable function

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Homework Help Overview

This discussion revolves around a true or false problem concerning the properties of a double differentiable function, particularly focusing on implications of the second derivative being positive.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to establish a relationship between the function's behavior and its derivatives, questioning whether their proof is sufficiently detailed.
  • Some participants question the validity of the original poster's reasoning, suggesting counterexamples that challenge the assertion that a positive second derivative guarantees a positive first derivative.
  • Others explore the implications of convexity and the behavior of slopes near a point of interest, raising concerns about the assumptions made in the original claim.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various interpretations being explored. Participants are actively questioning assumptions and providing counterexamples, but no consensus has been reached regarding the validity of the original statement or the counterexamples presented.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted confusion regarding the implications of dividing by a negative number in the context of inequalities, which has led to further examination of the original claim and its rearrangements.

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Homework Statement
Please see below
Relevant Equations
Please see below
For this true or false problem,
1715582269576.png

My solution is,
With rearrangement ##\frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x - a} > f'(a)## for ##x < a## since ##f''(x) > 0## implies ##f'(x)) > 0## from integration. ##f'(x) > 0## is equivalent to ##f(x)## is strictly increase which means that ##\frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x - a} > f'(a) = \lim_{x \to a} \frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x - a}##. However, I feel like I'm not showing enough steps in the proof to show for sure that the answer is True.

Does anybody else agree and know what more I should include?

Thanks!
 
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ChiralSuperfields said:
since ##f''(x) > 0## implies ##f'(x)) > 0## from integration
Counter example:
$$
f(x) = x(x - 1)
$$
This leads to ##f''(x)= 2 > 0## and ##f'(x) = 2x - 1##, which is negative for ##x < 1/2##.
 
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Second derivative positive implies ##f## is convex for ##x<a##. Take anything that is convex and decreasing for (some) ##x<a## as counterexample to your claim of ##f'(x)>0##.

As for the initial claim, think again of convexity. The slope at ##x=a## must be as large as it gets as ##x\to a-##. Moving to the left necessarily decreases the slope.

To illustrate, let ##f(x)=x^2## and ##a=1##. The slope at ##a=1## is ##2##, whereas if ##x=1-\delta##, then
<br /> \frac{1-(1-\delta)^2}{\delta} = 2-\delta&lt;2.<br />

Apply this concept in the general case.
 
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Orodruin said:
Counter example:
$$
f(x) = x(x - 1)
$$
This leads to ##f''(x)= 2 > 0## and ##f'(x) = 2x - 1##, which is negative for ##x < 1/2##.
I don't think that is a counter example. ##f'(x)(x-1/2)## is positive, so ##f(x) > f(1/2) + f'(1/2)(x-1/2) = -1/4## for ##x < 1/2##
temp.png
 
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FactChecker said:
I don't think that is a counter example. ##f'(x)(x-1/2)## is positive, so ##f(x) > f(1/2) + f'(1/2)(x-1/2) = -1/4## for ##x < 1/2##
View attachment 345170

It i a counter example to the assertion f&#039;&#039;(x) &gt; 0 \Rightarrow f(x) &gt; 0.
 
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the thing that puzzled me is that the original statement was true in all my examples (since the hypothesis implies the left part of the curve lies above its tangent line,) but the rearranged one was not. Then I finally noticed you had divided your inequality by the negative number (x-a), which should have changed its direction.
 
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FactChecker said:
I don't think that is a counter example. ##f'(x)(x-1/2)## is positive, so ##f(x) > f(1/2) + f'(1/2)(x-1/2) = -1/4## for ##x < 1/2##
View attachment 345170
Not to the problem statement, to the OP’s assertion that I quoted.
 
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Orodruin said:
Not to the problem statement, to the OP’s assertion that I quoted.

Sorry. I missed that point. I stand corrected.
 
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