- #1

tom.stoer

Science Advisor

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## Main Question or Discussion Point

It is well know that massless spin-1 gauge bosons have two spin states s³=+1 and s³=-1. There are two independent approaches how this can be shown:

1) via the representations of the Lorentz group for p²=0

2) via fixing / eliminating unphysical gauge d.o.f., e.g. via elimination of the longitudinal polarization by implemetation of the Gauss law constraintin the A°(x)=0 gauge

It is intersting that these two approaches seem to be unrelated - even so we know that A(x) lives in a vector bundle and therefore gauge and space-time symmetry are not independent.

My question is whether there is a deeper relation between (1) and (2).

1) via the representations of the Lorentz group for p²=0

2) via fixing / eliminating unphysical gauge d.o.f., e.g. via elimination of the longitudinal polarization by implemetation of the Gauss law constraintin the A°(x)=0 gauge

It is intersting that these two approaches seem to be unrelated - even so we know that A(x) lives in a vector bundle and therefore gauge and space-time symmetry are not independent.

My question is whether there is a deeper relation between (1) and (2).