Uncertainty in Algebraic Substitution: Is X=0?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around an algebraic substitution problem that leads to an indeterminate form of 0/0. Participants are exploring the implications of setting a variable, x, to zero and the subsequent steps in the problem-solving process.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are questioning the validity of the substitution that leads to the 0/0 form and discussing the implications of x being equal to pi versus approaching pi. There are attempts to clarify the meaning of certain symbols and the accuracy of the problem statement.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights into trigonometric identities and the behavior of the sine function. There is a recognition of the need to clarify the original problem's translation and notation, which has led to further exploration of the mathematical concepts involved.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of a potential translation error in the problem statement, which may have contributed to confusion. Participants are also addressing the implications of approaching a limit as opposed to equating variables directly.

Misr
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Homework Statement



[PLAIN]http://img137.imageshack.us/img137/4242/probhr.jpg


Well ,my problem is why after substitution for the first time the result os uncertainity (0/0)

Is X=0?

and I don't understand the step no 2
 
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What you've written doesn't make sense.
 
so...?
 
Misr said:
so...?

I think they mean the symbol you are writing as 'A' to be the symbol for pi.
 
Go back and check that you accurately copied the original problem and the solution. It's pointless to try explain something that is wrong to begin with.
 
I think they mean the symbol you are writing as 'A' to be the symbol for pi.
awww you are right.The problem was written in another language so I translated it in a wrong way...I'll try to solve it again

Thanks for all of you
 
Ok..I'm back
so I know that sin(180-x)=sin(pi-x)

but x= pi right?
so sin(pi-x) = sin (x-pi) ?
why did we use sin(pi-x) instead ?
hope u could understand me
thanks
 
x doesn't equal pi. But for any x, sin(x)=sin(pi-x)=(-sin(x-pi)). Look at graph of the sin function or use a sin addition formula to prove that. They are using those identities to prove the limit.
 
x doesn't equal pi.
so why not?
isn't x-pi=0 as mentioned in the problem ?
 
  • #10
Misr said:
so why not?
isn't x-pi=0 as mentioned in the problem ?

x-pi->0. That means x approaches pi (gets closer and closer to pi). It's not equal to pi. If x=pi then you have a zero in the denominator and the ratio is undefined.
 
  • #11
oh ok thanks very much
 

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