Uncertainty principle free particle

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The discussion focuses on deriving the uncertainty relation for a free particle, specifically showing that (Delta lambda)(Delta x) >= lambda^2 / 4pi. Participants discuss the use of the uncertainty principle and the relationship between momentum and wavelength, employing differential calculus to relate changes in these quantities. There is a significant emphasis on correctly using LaTeX for mathematical expressions, with users providing guidance on formatting issues. The conversation also addresses how to simplify expressions involving small changes, with a consensus on ignoring higher-order terms for clarity. Overall, the thread combines mathematical derivation with technical support for formatting equations.
semc
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Show that for a free particle the uncertainty relation can be written as (Delta lambda) (Delta x) >= lambda^2 / 4pi

Firstly I am sorry not writing this in latex but I gave up after trying to write it in latex for half an hour. Would be great if anyone can show me how to do it.

Using [(Delta p)(Delta x)>=h/4pi ] and h/p=lambda, I got (Delta x)>=(Delta lambda)/4pi. Multiplying throughout by (Delta lambda) I got (Delta lambda) (Delta x) >= (Delta lambda)^2 / 4pi. So how do I proceed from here?

Thanks
 
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Using [(Delta p)(Delta x)>=h/4pi ] and h/p=lambda, I got (Delta x)>=(Delta lambda)/4pi.

How did you get that?
 
Firstly, to type in latex you bracket your code as follows:
(tex) \Delta x = \frac{\partial A}{\partial B} (/tex)( with () --> [] ).

In the advanced editor you should also see a latex reference button (Sigma).

Note that the closing tex bracket uses a forward slash while latex code uses backslash as an escape char.

I have problems with the preview of latex code as it uses cached images but the actual post will be OK (if my latex code is OK).

As to your question I think you need to relate Delta lambda to p and Delta p. Assuming the "Delta's" are small I think one can use differential rules (but absolute value the results since the Delta error is a magnitude):

Given
\lambda = \frac{h}{p}
or
p = \frac{h}{\lambda}
hence
\Delta \lambda = \Delta\left(\frac{h}{p}\right) = \frac{h \Delta p}{p^2}
and
\Delta p= \Delta\left(\frac{h}{\lambda}\right) = \frac{h \Delta \lambda}{\lambda^2}

I think that's the key to the problem.

If you need a bit more rigor begin with:
\Delta p = \left| \frac{h}{\lambda} - \frac{h}{\lambda + \Delta \lambda} \right|

combine the fractions and then multiply top and bottom by \lambda - \Delta \lambda and ignore O(\Delta \lambda^2) terms.
 
Thanks so much for the help on the latex coding!

I thought h/p=lambda so
\Delta \lambda = \frac{h}{\Delta p}
Is this wrong?

I expanded
<br /> \Delta p = \left| \frac{h}{\lambda} - \frac{h}{\lambda + \Delta \lambda} \right| <br />
but I got
\frac{h \Delta \lambda}{\lambda^2 + \lambda \Delta \lambda}
So do I ignore the \lambda \Delta \lambda to get the \Delta p? Why can we ignore that term?
 
Last edited:
semc said:
Thanks so much for the help on the latex coding!

I thought h/p=lambda so
\Delta \lambda = \frac{h}{\Delta p}
Is this wrong?
Yep.
If you divide by a small change you get a big change and you shouldn't.
[edit:] Note that with differentials if you rather write:
h = \lambda p
then you get:
0 = d\lambda p + \lambda dp
so
dp = -\frac{pd\lambda}{\lambda}
[end edit]

I expanded
<br /> \Delta p = \left| \frac{h}{\lambda} - \frac{h}{\lambda + \Delta \lambda} \right| <br />
but I got
\frac{h \Delta \lambda}{\lambda^2 + \lambda \Delta \lambda}
So do I ignore the \lambda \Delta \lambda to get the \Delta p? Why can we ignore that term?

Here's the trick:
\frac{h \Delta \lambda}{\lambda(\lambda+ \Delta \lambda)}\cdot \frac{\lambda-\Delta \lambda}{\lambda - \Delta \lambda} =\frac{h (\lambda\Delta\lambda -\Delta \lambda^2}{\lambda(\lambda^2 - \Delta \lambda^2)}
Ignore order Delta lambda ^2 terms and you have:
=\frac{h \lambda\Delta\lambda }{\lambda^3}= \frac{h\Delta\lambda}{\lambda^2}

This is the same "trick" used in deriving the derivative of 1/x or "rationalizing" a complex denominator.
 
I got it thanks alot
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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