MHB Understanding Aut(G) Isomorphism to Z2

  • Thread starter Thread starter mathmari
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Group
Click For Summary
The discussion centers on the automorphism group of the group G, specifically demonstrating that Aut(Z) is isomorphic to Z2. It is established that the generators of Z are ±1, and automorphisms must map these generators to themselves or their negatives. The identity function and the inversion function are identified as the two automorphisms of Z, leading to the conclusion that Aut(Z) consists of these two functions, which can be mapped to Z2. The conversation also touches on the isomorphism of Aut(Z6) and Aut(Z8) to Z2 and Z2 × Z2, respectively, but notes that the proposed functions for these automorphisms do not satisfy the necessary group properties.
  • #31
mathmari said:
Suppose that a group $G$ is cyclic, then it is generated by a generator, say $g$.
Then every element of $G$ can be written in the form $g^i$ for some $i$.
Suppose that $x,y\in G$ then $x=g^k$ and $y=g^m$.
We have $$xy=g^kg^m=g^{k+m}=g^{m+k}=g^mg^k=yx$$
Therefore, a cyclic group is abelian.

Is this correct? (Wondering)

Yes. Notice that all the "action" happens in the exponents-the "$x$" just acts as a placeholder, of sorts. So a cyclic group is abelian BECAUSE the integers are abelian (under addition). In fact, EVERY cyclic group is a homomorphic image of the integers-if it is an isomorphic image (1-1 and onto) it is isomorphic to the images. If it is just an image (only onto), it is a FINITE cyclic group (with the smallest (positive) "repeat" of powers being the ORDER), isomorphic to $\Bbb Z_n$ for some $n$.


Ah ok... (Nerd)



I see... (Nerd)

I understand... (Smile)

Cool.

So, having shown that a group of $4$ elements is abelian, we have that $\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_8)$, which has $4$ elements, is abelian.

Therefore, $$\text{id}\circ f_i=f_i\circ \text{id} \\ f_i\circ f_j =f_j\circ f_i$$ for $i,j=1,2,3$ and $i\neq j$.

We have the following:
$$(\text{id}\circ \text{id})(x)=\text{id}(\text{id}(x))=\text{id}(x)=x$$
So, $\text{id}\circ\text{id}$ is the function $\mathbb{Z}_8\rightarrow \mathbb{Z}_8$ that maps $x\mapsto x$, so it is the function $\text{id}$.
Therefore, we have $h(\text{id}\circ\text{id})=h(\text{id})=(0,0)=(0,0)+(0,0)=h(\text{id})+h(\text{id})$. $$(f_1\circ f_1)(x)=f_1(f_1(x))=f_1(3x)=3( 3 x)=9x\equiv x$$
So, $f_1\circ f_1$ is the function $\mathbb{Z}_8\rightarrow \mathbb{Z}_8$ that maps $x\mapsto x$, so it is the function $\text{id}$.
Therefore, we have $h(f_1\circ f_1)=h(\text{id})=(0,0)=(0,1)+(0,1)=h(f_1)+h(f_1)$. $$(f_2\circ f_2)(x)=f_2(f_2 (x))=f_2(-3x)=-3(-3x)=9x\equiv x$$
So, $f_2\circ f_2$ is the function $\mathbb{Z}_8\rightarrow \mathbb{Z}_8$ that maps $x\mapsto x$, so it is the function $\text{id}$.
Therefore, we have $h(f_2\circ f_2)=h(\text{id})=(0,0)=(1,0)+(1,0)=h(f_2)+h(f_2)$. $$(f_3\circ f_3)(x)=f_3(f_3(x))=f_3(-x)=-(-x)=x$$
So, $f_3\circ f_3$ is the function $\mathbb{Z}_8\rightarrow \mathbb{Z}_8$ that maps $x\mapsto x$, so it is the function $\text{id}$.
Therefore, we have $h(f_3\circ f_3)=h(\text{id})=(0,0)=(1,1)+(1,1)=h(f_3)+h(f_3)$. $$(f_1 \circ f_2)(x)=f_1(f_2 (x))=f_1(-3x)=3(-3x)=-9x\equiv -x$$
So, $f_1\circ f_2$ is the function $\mathbb{Z}_8\rightarrow \mathbb{Z}_8$ that maps $x\mapsto -x$, so it is the function $f_3$.
Therefore, we have $h(f_1\circ f_2)=h(f_3)=(1,1)=(0,1)+(1,0)=h(f_1)+h(f_2)$. $$(f_1\circ f_3)(x)=f_1(f_3(x))=f_1(-x)=3(-x)=-3x$$
So, $f_1\circ f_3$ is the function $\mathbb{Z}_8\rightarrow \mathbb{Z}_8$ that maps $x\mapsto -3x$, so it is the function $f_2$.
Therefore, we have $h(f_1\circ f_3)=h(f_2)=(1,0)=(0,1)+(1,1)=h(f_1)+h(f_3)$. $$(f_2\circ f_3)(x)=f_2(f_3(x))=f_2(-x)=-3(-x)=3x$$
So, $f_2\circ f_3$ is the function $\mathbb{Z}_8\rightarrow \mathbb{Z}_8$ that maps $x\mapsto 3x$, so it is the function $f_1$.
Therefore, we have $h(f_2\circ f_3)=h(f_1)=(0,1)=(1,0)+(1,1)=h(f_2)+h(f_3)$.
So, we have that $h$ is an homomorphism.

Is this correct? (Wondering)

Yes...verified in excruciating detail. You might look for short-cuts with large groups.
Is $h$ 1-1 and onto because we have defined the function so that each element of $\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_8)$ is mapped to one element in $\mathbb{Z}_2\times\mathbb{Z}_2$ and each element of $\mathbb{Z}_2\times\mathbb{Z}_2$ has its original in $\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_8)$? (Wondering)

Yes, this is clear to see.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #32
Deveno said:
Yes. Notice that all the "action" happens in the exponents-the "$x$" just acts as a placeholder, of sorts. So a cyclic group is abelian BECAUSE the integers are abelian (under addition). In fact, EVERY cyclic group is a homomorphic image of the integers-if it is an isomorphic image (1-1 and onto) it is isomorphic to the images. If it is just an image (only onto), it is a FINITE cyclic group (with the smallest (positive) "repeat" of powers being the ORDER), isomorphic to $\Bbb Z_n$ for some $n$.

Ah ok... (Thinking)
Deveno said:
You might look for short-cuts with large groups.

What do you mean? (Wondering)
 
  • #33
mathmari said:
Ah ok... (Thinking)


What do you mean? (Wondering)

Well suppose you wanted to classify $\text{Aut}(\Bbb Z_{90})$. There's a LOT of products to check, right?
 
  • #34
Deveno said:
Well suppose you wanted to classify $\text{Aut}(\Bbb Z_{90})$. There's a LOT of products to check, right?

Yes... What would we do in that case? (Wondering)
 
  • #35
maybe if $\text{Aut}(\Bbb Z_n) \cong (\Bbb Z_n)^{\times} = U(n)$ that would help?
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
488
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
3K
  • · Replies 26 ·
Replies
26
Views
812
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
4K
  • · Replies 23 ·
Replies
23
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K