Understanding Dirichlet Integral Proof

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around understanding the proof of the Dirichlet integral as presented on a Wikipedia page. Participants are examining the validity of a specific step in the proof involving the imaginary part of an exponential function and its implications for the integral.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses uncertainty about the step in the proof that relates the sine function to the imaginary part of the exponential function, questioning its clarity and correctness.
  • Another participant asserts that the equality involving the imaginary part is valid, noting that since \( e^{-\alpha\omega} \) is real, the relationship holds true.
  • A similar point is reiterated, emphasizing that both \( \alpha \) and \( \omega \) must be real for the equality to be applicable.
  • Another participant reminds others to consider the differentials involved in the integration process.
  • One participant points out that the Wikipedia page does not explicitly state that \( \alpha \) is real, which adds to the uncertainty in the discussion.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally do not reach a consensus on the clarity and correctness of the proof step in question. Multiple viewpoints regarding the validity of the mathematical relationships remain, indicating an unresolved discussion.

Contextual Notes

There is a lack of explicit assumptions regarding the reality of \( \alpha \) and \( \omega \) in the proof, which may affect the interpretation of the integral. The discussion also highlights the importance of differentials in the integration process, which is not fully addressed in the original proof.

Amok
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I was trying to understand the proof given in this wiki page:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dirichlet_integral

But I'm sure their proof is correct because I don't know if the step where he says the sine is the imaginary part of the the exponential and then expands it to the whole of the integral is correct.

[tex]\int_0^{\infty} e^{-\alpha \omega} Im( e^{i \beta \omega}) = Im( \int_0^{\infty} e^{-\alpha \omega} e^{i \beta \omega})[/tex]

I doesn't make much sense to me. That whole part of the demonstration is very unclear to me.

Anyone know this?
 
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[tex]e^{-\alpha\omega}[/tex] is real there, and since [tex]c \Im \left{a+bi\right}=\Im\left{ac+cbi\right}=cb[/tex], the equality [tex]e^{-\alpha\omega}\sin{\beta\omega}=\Im\left{e^{-\alpha\omega}e^{i\beta\omega}\right}[/tex] is valid. If you are still uncertain of this, the integral can be solved by using twice integration by parts.
 
losiu99 said:
[tex]e^{-\alpha\omega}[/tex] is real there, and since [tex]c \Im \left{a+bi\right}=\Im\left{ac+cbi\right}=cb[/tex], the equality [tex]e^{-\alpha\omega}\sin{\beta\omega}=\Im\left{e^{-\alpha\omega}e^{i\beta\omega}\right}[/tex] is valid. If you are still uncertain of this, the integral can be solved by using twice integration by parts.

So alpha and omega have to be real for this to work.
 
Yes. Also, don't forget your differentials.
 
Yeah, well they do not state that alpha is real in that page. Thanks guys.
 

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