MHB Understanding Fourier Series: Solving a Problem with Sinusoidal Functions

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The discussion centers on a Fourier series problem involving the function f(t), which is defined as zero on [-π, 0] and sin(ωt) on [0, π]. The initial calculations yield correct coefficients a0 and b1, but there is confusion regarding the calculation of an, which is expected to be zero due to orthogonality. Participants clarify that orthogonality applies to intervals symmetric about the x-axis, such as [-π, π], but not necessarily to [0, 2π]. They also note that integrating sin(Ax)cos(Bx) over a complete period results in zero due to the cancellation of positive and negative areas. The conversation concludes with an agreement that any complete period, regardless of the starting point, will yield similar results.
ognik
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Hi, appreciate some help with this FS problem - $f(t)= 0$ on $[-\pi, 0]$ and $f(t)=sin\omega t$ on $[0,\pi]$

I get $a_0=\frac{2}{\pi}$ and $b_1 = \frac{1}{2}$, which agree with the book; all other $b_n = 0$ because Sin(mx)Sin(nx) orthogonal for $m \ne n$

But $a_n =\frac{1}{\pi}\int_{0}^{\pi}Sin(\omega t) Cos (n \omega t) \,d\omega t $ - so this should also be 0 because the terms are orthogonal, but the book's answer has Cos terms in even powers of n?
 
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Hi ognik,

I could be wrong, but I don't think the orthogonality property applies here because intuitively speaking, you have an odd function that is evaluated at half the period, not the full period.

i.e Consider $\int_0^{\pi}\sin\left({x}\right)\cos\left({nx}\right) \,dx$. For $n=1$, it indeed evaluates to 0, but not for any other $n$.

I suggest that you integrate it directly, which is of the form $\int \sin\left({Ax}\right)\cos\left({Bx}\right) \,dx$.
 
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Thanks - so does orthogonality only apply for a period of $2\pi$? Both $[0,2\pi]$ and $[-\pi, \pi]$ ?
 
Rido12 said:
I believe that it has to be symmetric about the x-axis, so any period such that $-L<x<L$. That means that $[0,2\pi]$ won't work, but $[-\pi, \pi]$ will work.

Hmm...my book uses $[0,2\pi]$ when talking about this orthogonality?
 
ognik said:
Hmm...my book uses $[0,2\pi]$ when talking about this orthogonality?

Hmm...I was talking in generality, but it does seem like it would work for $[0, 2\pi]$ in this case, my bad.
This is because $\sin Ax\cdot\cos Bx$ can be split into two individual sine terms, each of which evaluate to 0 if you integrate from $[0, \text{period}]$. (A complete sine oscillation has an equal positive and negative area which cancel)
 
For myself, thinking about it further, it seems that a full period from any start point would also work (so $[x_0, x_0+2\pi]$ - because the same length of curve(s) would be included in the interval regardless of where in the curve we start from.
 
Yep, that's also correct, as in any phase shift of the function.
 

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