A Understanding Local and Nonlocal Operators in Quantum Field Theory

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  • #101
vanhees71 said:
"direct" (or tensor) product
Since this thread turns out to be about nitpicking on sloppy (physicist's?) and precise (mathematician's?) definitions, it should be mentioned that in mathematics direct product and tensor product are different things, but physicists often say "direct" product when in fact they mean tensor product. In the example above, I think it was really the direct (not the tensor) product.
 
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  • #102
martinbn said:
This is also true for the local ones.
WHAT is also true for the local ones?
 
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  • #103
martinbn said:
And what is the definition of a local field? So far no one answered that.
I said it at least two times, so here is the third. According to the reference in the first post, a field operator ##O(x)## is local iff ##O(x)=e^{-ipx}O(0)e^{ipx}##.
 
  • #104
The definition has been given in #1, it's an operator with
$$\hat{O}(x)=\exp(-\mathrm{i} \hat{P} \cdot x) \hat{O}(0) \exp(\mathrm{i} \hat{P} \cdot x),$$
where ##\hat{P}## is the total-four-momentum operator.
 
  • #105
Demystifier said:
I said it at least two times, so here is the third. According to the reference in the first post, a field operator ##O(x)## is local iff ##O(x)=e^{-ipx}O(0)e^{ipx}##.
That is not how i read it. Where is that definition? To me this looked like an example of a local operator. Similar to saying that a polynomial is a continuous function. That is not what the definition of a continuous function.
 
  • #106
Demystifier said:
WHAT is also true for the local ones?
What you wrote in your post.
 
  • #107
martinbn said:
What you wrote in your post.
So you are saying that ##O(f)## is a local operator?
 
  • #108
Demystifier said:
Since this thread turns out to be about nitpicking on sloppy (physicist's?) and precise (mathematician's?) definitions, it should be mentioned that in mathematics direct product and tensor product are different things, but physicists often say "direct" product when in fact they mean tensor product. In the example above, I think it was really the direct (not the tensor) product.
Do we have to define all well-known terminology on PF? It all started with "reference frame". Now we get lost in discussions about standard terminology in quantum (field) theory. It's getting somewhat annoying!

A direct, Kronecker, or tensor product in quantum theory is a construct like ##|x \rangle \otimes |y \rangle \otimes |z \rangle=|\vec{x} \rangle## for vectors or, in this case, generalized eigenvectors and the corresponding definitions for operators ##\hat{O}_1 \otimes \hat{O}_2 \otimes \hat{O}_3## etc.

Of course you can define all kinds of "direct products" between all kinds of mathematical objects:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Direct_product
 
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  • #109
martinbn said:
That is not how i read it. Where is that definition? To me this looked like an example of a local operator. Similar to saying that a polynomial is a continuous function. That is not what the definition of a continuous function.
The paper says: "... for any local quantum field operator ##{\cal O}(\vec{x}) = e^{-i{\vec P}\cdot{\vec x}}{\cal O}e^{i{\vec P}\cdot{\vec x}}## ..." How could the word "any" be interpreted as an example?
 
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  • #110
vanhees71 said:
Do we have to define all well-known terminology on PF.
For @martinbn , yes we do.
 
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  • #111
Demystifier said:
So you are saying that ##O(f)## is a local operator?
No, I said that local operators are also of that type, they evaluate on test function. Are you saying they are not?
Demystifier said:
The paper says: "... for any local quantum field operator ##{\cal O}(\vec{x}) = e^{-i{\vec P}\cdot{\vec x}}{\cal O}e^{i{\vec P}\cdot{\vec x}}## ..." How could the word "any" be interpreted as an example?
Because it means any of these. And they have a definition for the general case early on, which I already quoted. How would you understand the statement "For any polynomial ##a_nx^n+\cdots+a_1x+a_0##, we have..."? As a definition of polynomial? That all polynomials are of that form? Then is ##x^2+y^2## a polynomial?
 
  • #112
vanhees71 said:
Do we have to define all well-known terminology on PF?
You don't have to do anything, but if asked, why would you argue about nonrelevant things for two pages instead of give the definition? Have you never asked about a definition here? Is it not allowed to ask about definitions here?
 
  • #113
The definition was given in #1. I don't undestand, why we have to discuss standard definitions. I stop from watching this thread now, because obviously I've nothing to add to clarify the confusion. I don't understand, how you can come to the conclusion that @Demystifier 's ##O[f]## might be a local operator. It hasn't even a space-time argument and is an integral of a local field operator over all space!
 
  • #114
martinbn said:
Because it means any of these. And they have a definition for the general case early on, which I already quoted. How would you understand the statement "For any polynomial ##a_nx^n+\cdots+a_1x+a_0##, we have..."? As a definition of polynomial? That all polynomials are of that form? Then is ##x^2+y^2## a polynomial?
The latter is a polynomial in ##x## with ##a_0=y^2##. :-p
 
  • #115
martinbn said:
No, I said that local operators are also of that type, they evaluate on test function. Are you saying they are not?
Local operator ##O(x)## in QFT does not evaluate on test function. For instance, for the free Klein-Gordon field operator ##\phi(x)## you can calculate ##\phi(x)|0\rangle## without using any test function. If you smear the local operator ##O(x)## with a test function ##f(x)##, the resulting operator ##O(f)=\int dx \, O(x)f(x)## is no longer a local operator.
 
  • #116
What if I define ##O(0) := \int \phi(x) f(x) dx## and ##O(x) := e^{-i P x} O(0) e^{i P x}##? Is ##O(x)## a local operator then, because it agrees with the definition?
 
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  • #117
Nullstein said:
What if I define ##O(0) := \int \phi(x) f(x) dx## and ##O(x) := e^{-i P x} O(0) e^{i P x}##? Is ##O(x)## a local operator then, because it agrees with the definition?
Good example! Yes, it is a local operator.
 
  • #118
But if we expand it, we get ##O(x) = e^{-i P x} \int \phi(y) f(y) dy e^{i P x} = \int e^{-i P x} \phi(y) e^{i P x} f(y) dy = \int \phi(y + x) f(y) dy = \int \phi(y) f(y - x) dy##, so ##O(x) = \int \phi(y) g_x(y) dy## with the new function ##g_x(y) := f(y-x)## and so ##O(x)## is again just ##\phi(x)## smeared with some non-local function ##g_x## and should really be a non-local operator according to your earlier post? I don't see what I'm missing.
 
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  • #119
Nullstein said:
But if we expand it, we get ##O(x) = e^{-i P x} \int \phi(y) f(y) dy e^{i P x} = \int e^{-i P x} \phi(y) e^{i P x} f(y) dy = \int \phi(y + x) f(y) dy = \int \phi(y) f(y - x) dy##, so ##O(x) = \int \phi(y) g_x(y) dy## with the new function ##g_x(y) := f(y-x)## and so ##O(x)## is again just ##\phi(x)## smeared with some non-local function ##g_x## and should really be a non-local operator according to your earlier post? I don't see what I'm missing.
I think in the integral it should be ##e^{-iPx}\phi(y)f(y)e^{iPx}=\phi(x+y)f(x+y)##, am I wrong here?
 
  • #120
For the translation operator, ##f(x)## is just a constant real number and can be pulled out. But even if it were true, we would just get ##O(x) = \phi[f]## instead of ##O(x) = \phi[g_x]##, which would still not solve the problem.
 
  • #121
Nullstein said:
For the translation operator, ##f(x)## is just a constant real number and can be pulled out. But even if it were true, we would just get ##O(x) = \phi[f]## instead of ##O(x) = \phi[g_x]##, which would still not solve the problem.
Notice that ##O## should satisfy also: ##\langle \Omega , O\Omega \rangle =0## for ##\Omega## a vacuum vector.
Does you example satisfy this condition?
 
  • #122
In fact, it seems like we can make any operator ##O## a local operator according to the definition. Just define ##O' := e^{i P x} O e^{-i P x}##. Then ##O## can be written as ##O = e^{-i P x}O' e^{i P x}## and satisfies the definition. Something must be wrong.
 
  • #123
MathematicalPhysicist said:
Notice that ##O## should satisfy also: ##\langle \Omega , O\Omega \rangle =0## for ##\Omega## a vacuum vector.
Does you example satisfy this condition?
Yes, because ##<\Omega, \phi[f]\Omega> = 0##. But even if not, we can just shift ##\phi[f]## by the constant value ##<\Omega, \phi[f]\Omega>## to make its expectation value 0, so that doesn't help a lot.
 
  • #124
MathematicalPhysicist said:
Notice that ##O## should satisfy also: ##\langle \Omega , O\Omega \rangle =0## for ##\Omega## a vacuum vector.
That's not a part of the definition of local operator. The paper discusses local operators that satisfy this condition as an additional condition.
 
  • #125
Nullstein said:
But if we expand it, we get ##O(x) = e^{-i P x} \int \phi(y) f(y) dy e^{i P x} = \int e^{-i P x} \phi(y) e^{i P x} f(y) dy = \int \phi(y + x) f(y) dy = \int \phi(y) f(y - x) dy##, so ##O(x) = \int \phi(y) g_x(y) dy## with the new function ##g_x(y) := f(y-x)## and so ##O(x)## is again just ##\phi(x)## smeared with some non-local function ##g_x## and should really be a non-local operator according to your earlier post? I don't see what I'm missing.
Smearing with ##f(x)## is not the same as smearing with ##f(x,y)##. For the latter kind of smearing, see post #4.
 
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  • #126
Nullstein said:
In fact, it seems like we can make any operator ##O## a local operator according to the definition. Just define ##O' := e^{i P x} O e^{-i P x}##. Then ##O## can be written as ##O = e^{-i P x}O' e^{i P x}## and satisfies the definition. Something must be wrong.
It really means that you can construct a local operator (local in ##x##) from any constant (##x##-independent) operator. But this, of course, does not mean that the initial constant operator was local. So there is nothing wrong with that.
 
  • #127
Demystifier said:
Smearing with ##f(x)## is not the same as smearing with ##f(x,y)##. For the latter kind of smearing, see post #4.
But that seems very strange. The operator ##\phi[g_x]## depends on values of ##\phi(x)## at many points, much like ##\phi(x)\phi(7)##, yet it is supposed to be local. What about ##\phi[g_7]## then? Now it's just ##\phi(x)## smeared with a shifted version of ##f##.
 
  • #128
MathematicalPhysicist said:
I think in the integral it should be ##e^{-iPx}\phi(y)f(y)e^{iPx}=\phi(x+y)f(x+y)##, am I wrong here?
No, it's confusing, because nobody writes the hats on the operators, but here you have in the integrand ##\hat{\phi}(y)f(y)##, i.e., ##f(y) \in \mathbb{C}## and thus ##\hat{T}(x) \hat{\phi}(y) f(y) \hat{T}(x) = f(y) \hat{\phi}(y+x)## with ##\hat{T}(x)=\exp(\mathrm{i} \hat{P} \cdot x)##.
 
  • #129
Demystifier said:
It really means that you can construct a local operator (local in ##x##) from any constant (##x##-independent) operator. But this, of course, does not mean that the initial constant operator was local. So there is nothing wrong with that.
But what's wrong with the following argument then: Any constant operator ##O## is local (according to the definition), because it takes the form ##O=e^{-i P x} O' e^{i P x}## for some operator ##O'##. ##O=e^{-i P x} (e^{i P x} O e^{-i P x}) e^{i P x}##.
 
  • #130
But then ##O## depends on ##x## and is no longer constant and thus not the same operator (except ##O'## commutes with ##P## ;-)).
 
  • #131
##O=e^{-i P x} (e^{i P x} O e^{-i P x}) e^{i P x}## only seemingly depends on ##x##. The ##x##-dependence just cancels out, independent of whether ##O'## commutes with ##P## or not.
 
  • #132
Of course, applying the identity operator finally doesn't do anything, which is why it's called identity operator.

A constant operator can only be a local operator according to the above definition when it is translation invariant, i.e., a function of ##\hat{P}##.
 
  • #133
I don't see where a translational invariance condition suddenly comes in. The definition just says that an operator ##O## is local if and only if there is a second operator ##O'## such that ##O=U(t) O' U(-t)##. I showed that there is such an ##O'## for any operator ##O##, so any operator satisfies the definition and hence is local. The definition doesn't require me to check for translational invariance.
 
  • #134
Again: By definition a local operator obeys ##\hat{O}(x)=\exp(\mathrm{i} \hat{P}) \hat{O}(0) \exp(-\mathrm{i} \hat{P}).## If ##\hat{O}(x)=\text{const}##, then ##\hat{O}(x)=\hat{O}(0)##, from which ##[\hat{O}(0),\hat{P}]=0##, i.e., a constant operator can only be local if it commutes with the four-momentum, i.e., it's a function of four-momentum.
 
  • #135
Nullstein said:
I don't see where a translational invariance condition suddenly comes in. The definition just says that an operator ##O## is local if and only if there is a second operator ##O'## such that ##O=U(t) O' U(-t)##. I showed that there is such an ##O'## for any operator ##O##, so any operator satisfies the definition and hence is local. The definition doesn't require me to check for translational invariance.
The primed operator has to be constant.
 
  • #136
Now that's a different criterion than the one in the first paper. This one applies to a set of operators now, rather than a single operator. Now a set ##\{O(x)\}## is said to be local if the individual ##O(x)## are related via translations. That's an important distinction. A single operator cannot be local or non-local then.

Take any operator ##O## and define the two sets ##X = \{U(x) O U(-x)\}## and ##Y = \{U(2x) O U(-x)\}##. Then ##O## is local if viewed as a member of ##X##, but not as a member of ##Y##.
 
  • #137
Nullstein said:
But that seems very strange. The operator ##\phi[g_x]## depends on values of ##\phi(x)## at many points, much like ##\phi(x)\phi(7)##, yet it is supposed to be local. What about ##\phi[g_7]## then? Now it's just ##\phi(x)## smeared with a shifted version of ##f##.
I think the problem is only in the sloppy language. To understand it, let me further simplify the problem. Let ##\phi(x)## be a local operator in one dimension, ##x\in\mathbb{R}##. I claim that then ##\phi(7)## is not a local operator. But ##\phi(7)## is just a special case of ##\phi(x)##. So how can a special case of local operator fail to be a local operator?

The solution of the paradox consists in using a more precise language. When we say "local operator", we don't really mean one operator. Instead, we mean the whole set of operators ##\{ \phi(x)|x\in\mathbb{R}\}##.

This is very much analogous to the vector language. When we say that ##V^{\mu}## is a 4-vector, we really mean that the whole set ##\{V^{\mu} |\mu\in\{0,1,2,3\}\}## is a 4-vector. A component ##V^3##, for instance, is not a 4-vector. So ##\phi(7)## is not a local operator in the same sense in which ##V^3## is not a 4-vector. And ##\phi(x)## is a local operator in the same sense in which ##V^{\mu}## is a 4-vector.
 
  • #138
This is not precise enough. How do you phrase all that in terms of distributions?
 
  • #139
Okay, I agree that the locality criterion only makes sense if applied to sets of operators, rather than a single operator. However, the question remains why this is a meaningful definition. Apparently the set ##\{\phi(x)\}## is just as local as the set ##\{\eta(x)\}## where ##\eta(x) = U(x)\phi[f]U(-x)##. But we would like to think of a local (set of) operator(s) as something that captures only local physics, e.g. like ##\phi(x)##. However, ##\eta(x)## can easily depend on the physics of the whole galaxy if we choose ##f## accordingly and yet, it still qualifies as a local (set of) operator(s).
 
  • #140
Nullstein said:
Okay, I agree that the locality criterion only makes sense if applied to sets of operators, rather than a single operator. However, the question remains why this is a meaningful definition. Apparently the set ##\{\phi(x)\}## is just as local as the set ##\{\eta(x)\}## where ##\eta(x) = U(x)\phi[f]U(-x)##. But we would like to think of a local (set of) operator(s) as something that captures only local physics, e.g. like ##\phi(x)##. However, ##\eta(x)## can easily depend on the physics of the whole galaxy if we choose ##f## accordingly and yet, it still qualifies as a local (set of) operator(s).
I think it's in fact quite physical that a field at one point depends on other fields at other points. For instance, static electric field at one point depends on static charge distribution at all other points.
 
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  • #141
martinbn said:
How do you phrase all that in terms of distributions?
I don't, I leave that to mathematicians. :smile:
 
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  • #142
Demystifier said:
I think it's in fact quite physical that a field at one point depends on other fields at other points. For instance, static electric field at one point depends on static charge distribution at all other points.
But the field configuration is modeled by the quantum state. The field operator ##\phi(x)## just probes the field configuration at a specific point. The analog in quantum mechanics would be the position operators ##x_i##. E.g., we don't want ##x_1## to probe the position of particle ##i=2##. The analog of ##\eta(x)## would be something like the center of mass position ##\frac{1}{2}(x_1 + x_2)##.
 
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  • #143
Nullstein said:
But the field configuration is modeled by the quantum state. The field operator ##\phi(x)## just probes the field configuration at a specific point. The analog in quantum mechanics would be the position operators ##x_i##. E.g., we don't want ##x_1## to probe the position of particle ##i=2##. The analog of ##\eta(x)## would be something like the center of mass position ##\frac{1}{2}(x_1 + x_2)##.
Those are good analogies. But if you take into account interactions between particles, there is nothing strange with the idea that the fist particle probes the position of the second particle. In fact, in the absence of such probing, physical measurement would be impossible. Besides, the center of mass position behaves very much like a point particle (it moves as if all mass was concentrated at that point), despite the fact that this point may not contain matter at all.

You might want to study only kinematics (not the dynamics), in which case you don't want to know how one particle depends on other particles or how the field at one point depends on fields at other points. And you might want to study only fundamental degrees of freedom, in which case you are not interested in effective degrees such as the center of mass position. You might restrict your thinking in that way, but this may be misleading. Especially if all field theories are just effective theories after all.

So I would suggest to think of local field as something that formally behaves as a local field, even if this is not a true local field at the fundamental level. That's completely analogous to the fact that the center of mass position formally behaves as a pointlike particle, even if this is not a true pointlike particle at the fundamental level.
 
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  • #144
What a mess! Okay, I am going to settle this (local thingy) once and for all. I will start by explaining the term in the relativistic classical field theory and then in QFT.

Classical Field Theory: Here the field variables \phi_{a}(x) are continuous functions on \mathbb{R}^{(1,3)}. The field equations and their invariants are obtained from the Lagrangian function \mathcal{L}(x) which is (quasi) invariant under the action of the Poincare group. Usually \mathcal{L}(x) is taken to be a real function of the fields \phi_{a}(x) and of their first derivatives \partial_{\mu}\phi_{a} leading (in this case) to field equations being differential equations of the second order. If \mathcal{L}(x) depends on the state of the fields in an infinitesimally small neighbourhood of the point x, i.e., on the values of \phi_{a} and of a finite number of their partial derivatives evaluated at the point x, then \mathcal{L}(x) = \mathcal{L}\left(\phi_{a}(x) , \partial_{\mu}\phi_{a}(x) \right) , is called local Lagrangian, and the corresponding theory is said to be a local field theory. In here, the term “local fields” are also used simply because the changes in the fields at a point x are determined by the properties of the fields infinitesimally close to the point x, i.e., the dynamical evolution is completely determined by the initial data (\phi (0, \vec{x}) , \partial_{t}\phi (0 , \vec{x})) and the field equation.

Exercise (1): You are given the Cauchy surface at t_{0}, \phi (t_{0}, \vec{x}) = F (\vec{x}), \ \ \ \partial_{t}\phi (t_{0} , \vec{x}) = G (\vec{x}), and the field equation \frac{\partial^{2}\phi}{\partial t^{2}} = \nabla^{2} \phi - m^{2} \phi . You are asked to reconstruct the dynamical evolution of the Klein-Gordon field.

In the opposite case when, for example, the Lagrangian has the form \mathcal{L}(x) = \int d^{4}y \ \Lambda (\phi (x) , \phi (y) , \partial \phi (x) , \partial \phi (y)) , one obtains so-called nonlocal theories which are plagued with incurable diseases.

The invariance of the local theory under continuous (symmetry) group allows us to construct an object (for example 4-vector current j^{\mu}(x)), which is a local function of \phi_{a}(x) and \partial_{\mu}\phi_{a}(x), satisfying local conservation law \partial_{\mu}j^{\mu}(x) = 0 which leads to a time-independent (constant) quantity Q = \int d^{3}x \ j^{0}(t, \vec{x}) and is called a global charge. In here, there are two reasons for adjective “global” : (1) because \frac{dQ}{dt} = 0 and the fact that it is defined by integrating out the \vec{x}-dependence of j^{0}(t , \vec{x}), but most importantly (2) because one can show that the time-independent Q generates the global symmetry group of the theory.

Quantum Field Theory: In QFT the field \varphi (x) becomes an operator-valued distribution on \mathbb{R}^{(1,3)}. This quantum field is related to an operator on an abstract Hilbert space \mathcal{H} and, in contrast to the classical field, ceases to describe the state of the system; this state is now represented by an abstract vector of the Hilbert space. It is clear why we need operators in the quantum theory, but why operator-valued distributions and not operator-valued (continuous) functions on \mathbb{R}^{(1,3)}?
That is to say that we need to understand why the quantum field, in contrast to the classical one, cannot be a continuous function in all 4 variables (x^{0} , \vec{x}). The reason is that the (free) field equation alone does not give the full characteristic of the (free) field, the missing parts are the equal-time commutation relations which, indeed, play the role of that of the initial data in the classical case. To see that, consider the simple case of KG field equation (\partial^{2} + m^{2}) \varphi (x), \ \ \ \ \ (1) together with the equal-time commutation relations [ \varphi (t , \vec{x}) , \varphi (t , \vec{y})] = 0, \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ (2a)[ \varphi (t , \vec{x}) , \dot{\varphi} (t , \vec{y})] = i \delta^{3} (\vec{x} - \vec{y}). \ \ \ \ (2b) Now, look at the non-equal-time commutator [\varphi (x) , \varphi (y)] = i\Delta (x,y) \ \mbox{id}. Since, \varphi (x) satisfies the KG equation (1), it follows that (\partial^{2}_{x} + m^{2}) \Delta (x,y) = 0. And from (2) we obtain the initial conditions on \Delta \Delta (x,y)|_{x^{0} = y^{0} = t} = 0,\frac{\partial \Delta (x,y)}{\partial x^{0}}|_{x^{0} = y^{0} = t} = - \delta^{3} (\vec{x} - \vec{y}) . Since these initial conditions depend only on (\vec{x} - \vec{y}), x^{0} - y^{0} = 0 and are distributions, the same must be true for the solution \Delta (x,y).
In QFT there is a well-founded procedure in which the field distribution can be smeared out with a “good” function f(x) in such a way that it become, in general unbounded, operator acting in the Hilbert space and is linear on the space of “good” functions: \varphi (f) \equiv \int d^{4}x \ \varphi (x) f(x) .The operators \varphi (f) for all f have a common dense domain of definition \Omega \subset \mathcal{H} and we want \varphi (f): \Omega \to \Omega, viz. \varphi (f) \Omega \subset \Omega . The domain \Omega must also be stable under the action of the infinite-dimensional unitary representation U(a ,\Lambda ) of the Poincare group. Further, the linear functional f \mapsto \langle \Psi |\varphi (f) |\Phi \rangle , should be continuous for any |\Psi \rangle , |\Phi \rangle \in \mathcal{H} with respect to the topology of the spaces of “good” functions. These spaces are usually taken to be \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^{4}), the space of rapidly decreasing functions in \mathbb{R}^{4}, or \mathcal{D}(\mathcal{O}), the space of compactly-supported functions on the (bounded) open set \mathcal{O} \subseteq \mathbb{R}^{4}.
Now, we come to the badly discussed issue of this thread, so please pay careful attention to the following: In the case that \mathcal{O} \subset \mathbb{R}^{4} is a finite spacetime region, we call the operator \varphi (f) = \int d^{4}x \ \varphi (x) \ f(x) , \ \ \ f \in \mathcal{D}(\mathcal{O}) , a smeared local operator if it satisfies the following axioms:
i) Poincare covariance, U^{\dagger}(a, \Lambda) \varphi_{r}(f)U(a , \Lambda) = D_{r}{}^{s}(\Lambda) \varphi_{s} (f_{(a , \Lambda)}), where f_{(a , \Lambda)}(x) = f\left(\Lambda^{-1}(x - a)\right), and D(\Lambda) is a finite-dimensional representation of the proper Lorentz group SO^{\uparrow}(1,3). In the particular case of translation U(a , 1) = e^{i a^{\mu}P_{\mu}}, we have e^{-i a^{\mu}P_{\mu}} \ \varphi (f) \ e^{i a^{\mu}P_{\mu}} = \varphi (f_{(a , 1)}) , \ \ \ f_{(a,1)} (x) = f(x - a). The infinitesimal version of this reads [iP_{\mu} , \varphi (f)] = \varphi (\partial_{\mu}f).
ii) Local (anti)commutativity [\varphi_{r}(f) , \varphi_{s} (g)] = 0, whenever \mbox{supp} \ f \in \mathcal{D}(\mathcal{O}) is spacelike with respect to \mbox{supp} \ g \in \mathcal{D}(\mathcal{O}).
The existence of the unique vacuum together with axiom (ii) allow us to prove the separating property of the vacuum with respect to smeared local fields: since the causal complement for a bounded open set \mathcal{O} is not empty, any smeared local operator \varphi (f), \forall f \in \mathcal{D}(\mathcal{O}) annihilating the vacuum is vanishing in itself, i.e., \varphi (f) |0 \rangle = 0 \ \ \Rightarrow \ \varphi (f) = 0.

So, a non-local field (whatever it is) is one that does not satisfy the above two axioms and, therefore, with respect to it the separating property of the vacuum does not hold. Also, the absence of x in the arguments of a field (i.e., the smearing procedure) does not make the field non-local.

Exercise (2): Recall the local conservation law in classical field theory \partial^{\mu} j_{\mu} = 0. In QFT the vector current j_{\mu}(x) becomes an operator-valued distribution. Let f_{T} \in \mathcal{D}(\mathbb{R}), \ f_{R} \in \mathcal{D}(\mathbb{R}^{3}) be test functions such that \int dx^{0} f_{T}(x^{0}) = 1, f_{R}(\vec{x}) = 1 for |\vec{x}|\leq R and f_{R}(\vec{x}) = 0 for |x| \geq 2R. Write down the distributional conservation law \partial^{0}j_{0}(x) + \sum_{k}^{3} \partial^{k}j_{k}(x) = 0 in terms of smeared out local fields.
 
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  • #145
samalkhaiat said:
What a mess! Okay, I am going to settle this (local thingy) once and for all.
You destroyed all the fun, now we have nothing to discuss any more. :oldbiggrin: :bow:

Now seriously! What book or review would you recommend on this stuff?
 
  • #146
Great summary, but let's see, whether this helps to settle the issue :oldbiggrin:.
 
  • #147
vanhees71 said:
Great summary, but let's see, whether this helps to settle the issue :oldbiggrin:.
What is the issue that needs to be settled? The summary is good, it gives the definitions i wanted to see.
 
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  • #148
@samalkhaiat what sort of "incurable diseases" does Nonlocal theories posses?
 
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  • #149
Demystifier said:
You destroyed all the fun, now we have nothing to discuss any more. :oldbiggrin: :bow:

Now seriously! What book or review would you recommend on this stuff?
I once tried reading a copy of Baez's textbook on Intro to algebraic and constructive QFT:
https://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/bsz_new.pdf
But I've seen that I first need to grasp Lie algebras and Lie Groups.
I don't know but I tend to forget all the details of the definitions unless I am using them repeatedly.
 
  • #150
Demystifier said:
You destroyed all the fun, now we have nothing to discuss any more. :oldbiggrin: :bow:
Hehehe, the destruction would have been greater if the terms quasi-local, relatively local and/or localized fields were included in the discussions.

Now seriously! What book or review would you recommend on this stuff?

As for books, I liked and learned a lot from R. Jost’s book “The General Theory of Quantized Fields”,(Amer. Math. Soc. Publication, 1963). There is also Haag’s book “Local Quantum Physics”, (Springer, 1996).
For review articles, see
Kastler, Robinson & Swieca, Comm. Math. Phys., 2, 108 (1966).
Ferrari & Picasso, Comm. Math. Phys., 35, 25 (1974),
and the all times classic review article of Claudio Orzalesi in Rev. Mod. Phys. 42, 381-409(1970).
 
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