Understanding Moment in Beam: Analysis and Solution | Beam Homework

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The discussion revolves around the analysis of a beam's bending moment and the interpretation of distributed loads. Participants clarify that the author's method is correct, emphasizing that the distributed load starts at x = 0 and extends to x = 2, followed by an equal and opposite load beyond that point. Confusion arises regarding the mathematical representation of the bending moment function, particularly the terms involving the distributed load. Despite repeated inquiries for clarification on specific equations, the consensus remains that the author's approach is valid and should be followed. Understanding the author's method is crucial for solving the problem correctly.
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Homework Statement


refer to the circled part , i don't understand the author's working .
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Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


I think it should be 450x - 150(4-x) -30092)(x-1) , correct me if I'm wrong . (taking moment about x ) ...
 
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is the author wrong , coz the distributed load start from R1 to 2m from R1 ...
 
chetzread said:
is the author wrong , coz the distributed load start from R1 to 2m from R1 ...
No, the author is not wrong.

The bending moment function EIy" is carefully constructed to show that the distributed load starts at x = 0 and runs to x = 2, after which an equal and opposite distributed load is applied to the beam at x > 2, so that the net distributed load is zero.
 
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SteamKing said:
No, the author is not wrong.

The bending moment function EIy" is carefully constructed to show that the distributed load starts at x = 0 and runs to x = 2, after which an equal and opposite distributed load is applied to the beam at x > 2, so that the net distributed load is zero.
why ? i still don't understand , i can only understand the 450x , why should be -0.5(300)(x^2) +0.5(300)[(x-2)^2 ]
 
SteamKing said:
No, the author is not wrong.

The bending moment function EIy" is carefully constructed to show that the distributed load starts at x = 0 and runs to x = 2, after which an equal and opposite distributed load is applied to the beam at x > 2, so that the net distributed load is zero.
why shouldn't it be 450x - 150(4-x) -300(0.5)(2)(x-1) ??
 
chetzread said:
why shouldn't it be 450x - 150(4-x) -300(0.5)(2)(x-1) ??
I'm not going to speculate on that.

Look, the author has a method of analysis of this beam which he is trying to teach. If you want to develop your own methods, write your own textbook.
 
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SteamKing said:
I'm not going to speculate on that.

Look, the author has a method of analysis of this beam which he is trying to teach. If you want to develop your own methods, write your own textbook.
i don't understand why it is -0.5(300)(x^2) +0.5(300)[(x-2)^2 ] , can you explain ?
 
SteamKing said:
No, the author is not wrong.

The bending moment function EIy" is carefully constructed to show that the distributed load starts at x = 0 and runs to x = 2, after which an equal and opposite distributed load is applied to the beam at x > 2, so that the net distributed load is zero.
why it's 0.5(300)(x^2) ? the 300N/m only 'defined ' from R1 to 2m from R1, am i right ? why shouldn't it be 0.5(300)(2)(x-2) instead? as you said , after 2m , net distributed load is zero
 
SteamKing said:
I'm not going to speculate on that.

Look, the author has a method of analysis of this beam which he is trying to teach. If you want to develop your own methods, write your own textbook.
the location of 300n/m is at R1 and extend to 2m from R1, so ,the EIy" should be = 450x-300(2)(x-1) ?
why there's -0.5(300)(x^2) +0.5(300)( (x-2)^2 )?
I'm confused

Or do you mean the 300(X) force still exist at X >2?
 
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