- #1
jdstokes
- 523
- 1
My (weak) understanding of renormalization is that following regularization, the divergent terms coming from loop integrals can be canceled by adding counterterms to the Lagrangian which are of the same form as the original terms.
What does this mean in terms of actual calculations? Does it mean that 1-loop corrections can be taken into account by substituting the running coupling constants into tree-level amplitudes? What about higher loop corrections?
What does this mean in terms of actual calculations? Does it mean that 1-loop corrections can be taken into account by substituting the running coupling constants into tree-level amplitudes? What about higher loop corrections?