mathmari
Gold Member
MHB
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Hey! 
We know that:
$$(x,x)=0 \Rightarrow x=0$$
When we have $\displaystyle{(x,y)=0}$, do we conclude that $\displaystyle{x=0 \text{ AND } y=0}$. Or is this wrong? (Wondering)

We know that:
$$(x,x)=0 \Rightarrow x=0$$
When we have $\displaystyle{(x,y)=0}$, do we conclude that $\displaystyle{x=0 \text{ AND } y=0}$. Or is this wrong? (Wondering)